The nurse manager overhears an older female nurse complaining to a co-worker about the time being used to attend an in-service session for bioterrorism preparedness. How should the nurse manager respond?
Choose to send another nurse who is more receptive because the older nurse is not interested.
Ask the nurse why she thinks there is no need for an in-service program about these emergencies.
Inform the older nurse that in-service is not optional and her scheduled attendance is mandatory.
Encourage the nurse to share her concerns and discuss ways to prepare for such emergencies.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason: Choosing to send another nurse who is more receptive is not a good option, as it may create
resentment and conflict among the staff. The older nurse may feel discriminated against or excluded, and the other nurse may feel burdened or pressured. The nurse manager should try to engage and motivate the older nurse to attend the in-service session, as it is important for her professional development and patient safety.
Choice B Reason: Asking the nurse why she thinks there is no need for an in-service program about these emergencies may sound confrontational or accusatory and may put the nurse on the defensive. The nurse manager should avoid making assumptions or judgments about the nurse's attitude or beliefs, and instead try to understand her perspective and address any barriers or misconceptions.
Choice C Reason: Informing the older nurse that inservice is not optional and her scheduled attendance is mandatory may be true, but it may also sound authoritarian or coercive, and may undermine the nurse's autonomy or dignity. The nurse-manager should avoid using threats or ultimatums, and instead try to explain the rationale and benefits of the inservice session, and solicit the nurse's input or feedback.
Choice D Reason: Encouraging the nurse to share her concerns and discuss ways to prepare for such emergencies is the best option, as it shows respect and empathy for the nurse, and fosters a collaborative and supportive
relationship. The nurse-manager should use active listening and open-ended questions, and provide relevant information and resources to help the nurse overcome her fears or doubts, and enhance her confidence and competence.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) This action is not the best because it does not directly evaluate the PN's wound care skills in practice. A skill checklist may not reflect the current or actual abilities of the PN, especially if it is outdated or based on self-
reporting. The charge nurse should observe the PN's performance in person to ensure that she follows the proper procedures and protocols for sterile wound care.
B) This action is the best because it allows the charge nurse to verify the PN's wound care skills and provide feedback or guidance if needed. The charge nurse has a responsibility to ensure that the PN delivers safe and effective care to the clients on the unit. By watching the PN perform sterile wound care, the charge nurse can assess her competence, confidence, and compliance with standards of practice.
C) This action is not the best because it is disrespectful and discouraging to the PN. The charge nurse should not dismiss or undermine the PN's past experience, which may have contributed to her wound care skills. The charge nurse should acknowledge and appreciate the PN's expertise, but also verify her skill level through direct
observation.
D) This action is not the best because it exposes the client to potential harm and liability. The charge nurse should not delegate a task that requires assessment and evaluation to a PN without first confirming her skill level and competency. The charge nurse should also not ask the PN to perform a task while she is busy with other duties, as this may compromise the quality and safety of care.

Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is not the first priority because it is not a life-threatening condition. The male adolescent may have gastroenteritis or food poisoning, which can cause dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. The nurse should monitor his vital signs and fluid intake, but he can wait for further assessment.
Choice B Reason: This is the first priority because it is a potential surgical emergency. The female client may have appendicitis, which can cause peritonitis and sepsis if left untreated. The nurse should assess her pain level, vital signs, and abdominal signs, and prepare her for diagnostic tests and possible surgery.
Choice C Reason: This is not the first priority because it is a chronic condition that does not require immediate intervention. The elderly client may have intermittent claudication, which is a symptom of peripheral arterial disease. The nurse should educate him on leg care and exercise, but he can wait for further assessment.
Choice D Reason: This is not the first priority because it is a common condition that can be treated with antibiotics. The child may have a bacterial infection, such as bronchitis or pneumonia, which can cause productive cough and fever. The nurse should auscultate his lungs and check his temperature, but he can wait for further assessment.
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