Following 2 motor vehicle collision, an adult client is brought to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 72/50 mm Hg and a blood volume loss of approximately 40%. The nurse should plan care for this client based on which expected response to hemorrhaging?

Increased preload that results in generalized peripheral edema.

The lowered blood pressure results in a reduction of the heart rate.

Decreased preload that can lead to decreased cardiac output.

Increased peripheral resistance resulting from poor renal perfusion.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A) Increased preload that results in generalized peripheral edema:

This statement is incorrect. Decreased blood volume due to hemorrhage leads to decreased preload, not increased preload. Generalized peripheral edema is more commonly associated with conditions such as heart failure or kidney disease, where fluid retention leads to increased preload.

B) The lowered blood pressure results in a reduction of the heart rate:

While it's true that a decrease in blood pressure can trigger compensatory mechanisms such as an increase in heart rate (tachycardia), the specific response mentioned in this option is not entirely accurate. The primary compensatory response to hemorrhage-induced hypotension is typically an increase in heart rate, not a reduction.

C) Decreased preload that can lead to decreased cardiac output:

Correct. With decreased blood volume (preload), there is less blood returning to the heart during diastole. This leads to decreased ventricular filling and subsequently decreased stroke volume and cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can contribute to hypotension and inadequate tissue perfusion.

D) Increased peripheral resistance resulting from poor renal perfusion:

While poor renal perfusion can trigger mechanisms to increase peripheral resistance (such as activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system), this option does not directly address the primary effect of decreased preload on cardiac output. Increased peripheral resistance alone does not adequately compensate for decreased preload to maintain cardiac output.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Acute leukemia, including acute myeloid leukemia (AML), involves the proliferation of abnormal myeloblasts (immature white blood cells) in the bone marrow, leading to decreased production of normal blood cells. Here's the breakdown of the pathophysiology contributing to bruising in acute leukemia:

A) Oxyhemoglobin provides less oxygen to tissues:

Oxyhemoglobin refers to hemoglobin bound to oxygen, and its role is in oxygen transport, not in the process of bruising. Therefore, this option is not directly related to the pathophysiology of bruising in acute leukemia.

B) Insufficient platelets delay the clotting process:

Correct. Thrombocytopenia, or low platelet count, is a common complication of acute leukemia due to the replacement of normal bone marrow cells with leukemia cells, leading to inadequate production of platelets. Platelets play a crucial role in hemostasis and clot formation. Insufficient platelets result in delayed clotting, leading to easy bruising and bleeding tendencies in patients with acute leukemia.

C) Phagocytic cells are inadequate in fighting infection:

Leukopenia, or low white blood cell count, can occur in acute leukemia due to suppression of normal hematopoiesis by leukemia cells in the bone marrow. While leukopenia predisposes patients to infections due to impaired immune function, it is not directly related to the pathophysiology of bruising.

D) Lack of iron causes hypochromic blood cells:

Iron deficiency anemia can result in hypochromic red blood cells, but this is not typically associated with the pathophysiology of bruising in acute leukemia. Anemia may contribute to other symptoms such as fatigue and pallor, but bruising primarily results from thrombocytopenia-induced clotting abnormalities.

A. Inflammation results from deposition of crystals in the synovial space of joints producing irritation. B. Inflammation is caused by immune complex and autoantibody deposition in connective tissue. C. Joint inflammation occurs when chondrocyte injury destroys joint cartilage, producing osteophytes. D. Joint destruction happens due to an autoimmune inflammation involving IgG response to an antigen.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Chronic osteoarthritis (OA) is a degenerative joint disease characterized by the breakdown of joint cartilage and underlying bone changes. The pathophysiological process of OA involves various factors contributing to joint pain and inflammation. Here's why option C is the correct choice:

A) Inflammation results from deposition of crystals in the synovial space of joints producing irritation:

This statement is more characteristic of crystal-induced arthritis, such as gout or pseudogout, where crystals (e.g., urate or calcium pyrophosphate crystals) deposit in the joints and cause acute inflammation and irritation. While inflammation may occur in OA, it is primarily a result of mechanical stress and cartilage degradation rather than crystal deposition.

B) Inflammation is caused by immune complex and autoantibody deposition in connective tissue:

This statement is more characteristic of autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis (RA), where immune complex deposition and autoantibody production lead to chronic inflammation and joint damage. In OA, inflammation is not primarily mediated by immune complex deposition or autoantibodies.

C) Joint inflammation occurs when chondrocyte injury destroys joint cartilage, producing osteophytes:

Correct. In osteoarthritis, joint inflammation occurs as a result of chondrocyte injury and cartilage breakdown. Over time, the degenerative changes in the joint lead to the formation of osteophytes (bone spurs) at the joint margins. These changes can irritate surrounding tissues, including the synovium, ligaments, and tendons, contributing to joint pain and inflammation.

D) Joint destruction happens due to an autoimmune inflammation involving IgG response to an antigen:

This statement is more characteristic of autoimmune arthritis, such as rheumatoid arthritis (RA), where autoantibodies (e.g., rheumatoid factor, anti-citrullinated protein antibodies) target joint tissues, leading to chronic inflammation and joint destruction. In OA, joint destruction primarily results from mechanical stress and wear-and-tear on the joint structures rather than autoimmune mechanisms.

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Following 2 motor vehicle collision, an adult client is brought to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 72/50 mm Hg and a blood volume loss of approximately 40%. The nurse should plan care for this client based on which expected response to hemorrhaging?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is explaining the underlying cause of bruising with a client who is recently diagnosed with acute leukemia. Which pathophysiology is a result of the myeloblastic dysfunction of leukemia?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client with chronic osteoarthritis is troubled by knee pain. Which pathophysiological process is contributing to the pain?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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