Exhibits
For each assessment finding, click to indicate whether the findings from the client's assessment are generally associated with rotator cuff injury and/or humeral fracture. Each column must have at least one response selected.
1+ strength in left upper extremity
Decreased range of motion
Coolness of skin
Reduced pulse distal to injury
Pain with movement
The Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"A,B"},"C":{"answers":"A"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"A,B"}}
Rationale:
- 1+ strength in left upper extremity: Reduced strength in the affected arm could indicate a humeral fracture, which can impair muscle function and strength. A rotator cuff injury could cause pain, but it doesn’t necessarily lead to a reduction in strength to the extent seen with a humeral fracture.
- Decreased range of motion: Decreased range of motion is common with humeral fractures as the bone is likely immobilized and painful to move. A rotator cuff injury can also lead to decreased range of motion due to pain and limited ability to lift or rotate the arm.
- Coolness of skin: Coolness to the skin could indicate poor circulation, which can occur if there is vascular injury related to a humeral fracture or if there is significant swelling causing compression of blood vessels.Coolness is less commonly associated with rotator cuff injuries unless there is concurrent trauma affecting blood flow.
- Reduced pulse distal to injury: Reduced pulses can suggest vascular injury, which is more likely with a humeral fracture, especially if the bone fragments are displacing or compressing blood vessels.This is unlikely with a rotator cuff injury, as it primarily affects the tendons and muscles without significant impact on vascular structures.
- Pain with movement: Pain with movement is a classic symptom of a fracture, particularly when moving the arm or shoulder area. Pain with movement is also a hallmark of a rotator cuff injury, especially when the arm is raised or rotated.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Amiodarone: Amiodarone can cause pulmonary toxicity, but it is not a beta blocker and is less likely to cause acute bronchoconstriction. It should still be used cautiously in clients with lung disease, but it is not the priority to withhold based on current symptoms.
B. Propranolol: Propranolol is a non-selective beta blocker that can worsen bronchospasm in clients with COPD by blocking beta-2 receptors in the lungs. Given the client’s shortness of breath and COPD history, the nurse should consult the HCP before administering this drug.
C. Furosemide: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload and edema. It is appropriate in the presence of pitting edema and respiratory symptoms, as it may relieve symptoms related to right-sided heart failure commonly associated with advanced COPD.
D. Losartan: Losartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) used to manage hypertension and reduce cardiac workload. It does not typically worsen pulmonary function and is not contraindicated in COPD patients presenting with shortness of breath or edema.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. G (Gravida): This refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current pregnancy. Since the client is currently pregnant, and she has had three previous pregnancies and one of which was a spontaneous abortion, the total is 5 (1 current pregnancy + 3 previous births + 1 spontaneous abortion). T (Term births): The client has had two full-term births (one at 38 weeks and one at 41 weeks), so T = 2. P (Preterm births): The client has had one preterm birth (at 35 weeks), so P = 1. A (Abortions/miscarriages): The client had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks, so A = 1. L (Living children): The client has four living children, so L = 4.
B. G (Gravida): This refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current pregnancy. Since the client is currently pregnant, and she has had three previous pregnancies and one of which was a spontaneous abortion, the total is 5 (1 current pregnancy + 3 previous births + 1 spontaneous abortion). T (Term births): The client has had two full-term births (one at 38 weeks and one at 41 weeks), so T = 2. P (Preterm births): The client has had one preterm birth (at 35 weeks), so P = 1. A (Abortions/miscarriages): The client had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks, so A = 1. L (Living children): The client has four living children, so L = 4.
C. G (Gravida): This refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current pregnancy. Since the client is currently pregnant, and she has had three previous pregnancies and one of which was a spontaneous abortion, the total is 5 (1 current pregnancy + 3 previous births + 1 spontaneous abortion). T (Term births): The client has had two full-term births (one at 38 weeks and one at 41 weeks), so T = 2. P (Preterm births): The client has had one preterm birth (at 35 weeks), so P = 1. A (Abortions/miscarriages): The client had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks, so A = 1. L (Living children): The client has four living children, so L = 4.
D. G (Gravida): This refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current pregnancy. Since the client is currently pregnant, and she has had three previous pregnancies and one of which was a spontaneous abortion, the total is 5 (1 current pregnancy + 3 previous births + 1 spontaneous abortion). T (Term births): The client has had two full-term births (one at 38 weeks and one at 41 weeks), so T = 2. P (Preterm births): The client has had one preterm birth (at 35 weeks), so P = 1. A (Abortions/miscarriages): The client had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks, so A = 1. L (Living children): The client has four living children, so L = 4.
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