During a meeting to resolve staffing issues and tardiness on a unit, the nurse manager invites the staff to each take a turn speaking and asks that everyone listen respectfully and avoids making personal or professional remarks about one another. The nurse manager is utilizing which step in the negotiation process?

Set ground rules

Perform an opening move

Continue the negotiation

Clarify the problem

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Set ground rules: This step involves establishing guidelines for the discussion to ensure that all participants feel respected and heard. By inviting each staff member to speak in turn and asking them to listen respectfully without making personal or professional remarks, the nurse manager is creating a safe and structured environment for open communication. Setting ground rules is crucial for facilitating a productive dialogue and minimizing conflict during negotiations.
B. Perform an opening move: This refers to the initial statement or action taken to start the negotiation process. While the nurse manager is initiating the meeting, the emphasis on respectful communication and turn-taking indicates that the focus is more on establishing an effective communication framework rather than simply making an opening statement.
C. Continue the negotiation: This step implies that the negotiation is already underway and is focused on maintaining momentum in the discussion. However, the scenario describes the nurse manager taking proactive steps to set the stage for the negotiation rather than continuing an existing conversation.
D. Clarify the problem: While it is important to identify and clarify the staffing issues and tardiness, the nurse manager's actions are more about creating an environment for discussion rather than explicitly defining the problem at this stage. Setting ground rules is a foundational step that supports problem clarification by fostering respectful dialogue among participants.

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Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]

Explanation

A. Hypotension: While hypotension can occur in clients with acute respiratory failure (ARF), it is not a primary manifestation of the condition. Hypotension may arise due to other factors, such as sepsis or significant fluid loss, but is not universally present in ARF. Therefore, it is less likely to be a key finding in this context.
B. Severe dyspnea: This is a hallmark manifestation of ARF. Clients typically experience significant difficulty in breathing due to inadequate oxygenation or ventilation, leading to an urgent need for medical intervention. Monitoring for severe dyspnea is critical as it directly indicates the severity of respiratory distress.
C. Headache: Headaches can be a manifestation of acute respiratory failure, particularly due to hypoxia or hypercapnia (elevated carbon dioxide levels) affecting cerebral circulation. This symptom may arise as the body struggles to compensate for decreased oxygen levels, making it important to monitor in clients with ARF.
D. Decreased level of consciousness: This is a significant concern in ARF and can indicate worsening hypoxia or hypercapnia. Alterations in consciousness may range from confusion to unresponsiveness and require immediate evaluation and intervention, making it a critical manifestation to monitor.
E. Nausea: Although some clients may experience nausea as a secondary symptom due to anxiety or as a response to hypoxia, it is not a primary or definitive manifestation of acute respiratory failure. Therefore, while it may occur in some cases, it is not one of the key findings to consistently monitor in clients with ARF.

A. To facilitate weaning off the mechanical ventilator. B. To decrease trapped oxygen in the alveoli. C. To promote independent breathing efforts. D. To keep the airways and small lung spaces open.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. To facilitate weaning off the mechanical ventilator. While PEEP is an important component of mechanical ventilation, its primary function is not to facilitate weaning. Instead, it improves oxygenation by preventing alveolar collapse. Weaning involves gradually reducing ventilatory support, but PEEP is typically adjusted based on oxygenation needs rather than as a direct step in weaning.
B. To decrease trapped oxygen in the alveoli. PEEP does not decrease trapped oxygen; instead, it maintains alveolar patency and prevents atelectasis. In conditions like ARDS, alveoli tend to collapse due to fluid accumulation and inflammation, and PEEP helps counteract this collapse to improve gas exchange. Reducing "trapped" oxygen is not a function of PEEP.
C. To promote independent breathing efforts. PEEP itself does not promote spontaneous breathing; instead, it provides positive pressure at the end of exhalation to improve oxygenation. In fact, high levels of PEEP can suppress spontaneous breathing by increasing intrathoracic pressure, requiring careful adjustment to balance oxygenation and ventilatory effort.
D. To keep the airways and small lung spaces open. PEEP prevents alveolar collapse by maintaining positive pressure in the lungs at the end of expiration. This improves oxygenation and gas exchange, which is critical in ARDS, where alveoli are prone to collapse due to inflammation and fluid accumulation. Keeping alveoli open reduces shunting and improves oxygen delivery to tissues.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has an acute respiratory failure (ARF). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations of this condition? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and being treated with positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP). The nurse should understand that PEEP will benefit the client in what manner?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is taking a class about patient safety. The nurse should recognize that which of the following statements is true regarding patient safety and prevention of harm?

A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse should prioritize which precaution when administering nasal oxygen therapy to the client?

A client is being treated for bacterial pharyngitis. Which of the following should a nurse recommend when promoting the client's nutrition during treatment?

A client has been diagnosed in the Emergency Department with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following actions should a nurse perform first?

A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with lung carcinoma and scheduled for a left pneumonectomy. The nurse should prioritize which nursing Intervention in the immediate postoperative period?

A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with pneumonia and assesses labored breathing and copious tracheobronchial secretions. What priority action should the nurse encourage with the client?

A nurse is serving on a continuous quality improvement (CQI) committee that has been assigned to develop a program to reduce the number of medication administration errors following a sentinel event at the facility. Which of the following strategies should the committee plan to initiate first?

A nurse is caring for a client who has emphysema. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect to assess in this client? (Select all that apply.)