Based on the patient’s medication list, which of the following medications directly treat hypertension? (Select all that apply)
Lisinopril
Metformin
Hydralazine
Aspirin
Amlodipine
Correct Answer : A,C,E
Choice A reason: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, blocks angiotensin II formation, relaxing arteries and reducing blood pressure. It directly treats hypertension by decreasing vascular resistance and preload, a first-line therapy supported by its systemic vasodilatory effects.
Choice B reason: Metformin manages type 2 diabetes by improving insulin sensitivity and glucose uptake. It doesn’t affect blood pressure directly, targeting metabolic pathways instead, so it’s not a hypertension treatment despite cardiovascular risk benefits.
Choice C reason: Hydralazine dilates arterioles by relaxing smooth muscle, directly lowering blood pressure. Used in hypertension, especially in crises, it reduces afterload, making it a potent antihypertensive agent when rapid control is needed.
Choice D reason: Aspirin prevents platelet aggregation, reducing thrombotic risk in cardiovascular disease. It doesn’t lower blood pressure directly, acting as an antiplatelet rather than an antihypertensive, so it’s not a primary treatment for hypertension.
Choice E reason: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, relaxes vascular smooth muscle, decreasing peripheral resistance. It directly treats hypertension by dilating arteries, improving blood flow, and reducing cardiac workload, a common and effective long-term therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Mantoux induration of 10 mm indicates TB exposure, not active infection status. It’s a diagnostic tool, not a marker for contagiousness, so it doesn’t guide discontinuation of airborne precautions in treatment.
Choice B reason: Six months of TB meds suggests treatment progress, but contagiousness persists until sputum clears. Duration alone isn’t enough; microbiologic evidence is required to lift precautions, per infection control standards.
Choice C reason: Negative sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (three consecutive) confirm non-infectiousness in TB. This microbiological clearance allows discontinuation of airborne precautions, as the patient no longer spreads viable bacteria via droplets.
Choice D reason: Clear x-ray (no infiltrates) shows healing, but sputum can remain infectious. Radiologic improvement lags behind contagiousness, so negative smears, not imaging, determine when precautions can safely end.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Auscultating lung sounds post-albuterol assesses treatment efficacy in asthma exacerbation. Reduced wheezing or improved air entry indicates bronchodilation, guiding further care, making it the priority to evaluate respiratory response immediately.
Choice B reason: Measuring temperature monitors infection, a possible asthma trigger, but it’s not the priority post-treatment. Albuterol targets acute bronchospasm, so assessing respiratory effect trumps systemic checks like fever in this moment.
Choice C reason: Encouraging ambulation is premature post-albuterol; patients need rest during exacerbation. It risks worsening dyspnea before confirming treatment success, making it less urgent than evaluating lung response to the bronchodilator.
Choice D reason: Documentation is essential but secondary to patient assessment post-treatment. Auscultating lung sounds first ensures albuterol’s effect is evaluated, as clinical response guides care before recording in the record.
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