As a result of gastric resection, the client is at risk for developing dumping syndrome. The nurse should prepare a plan of care for this client based on knowledge that this problem stems primarily from which of the following gastrointestinal changes?
Total loss of gastric enzymes
Excess secretion of digestive enzymes in the intestines
Rapid emptying of stomach contents into the small intestine
Excess glycogen production by the liver
The Correct Answer is C
A. Total loss of gastric enzymes is not a primary cause of dumping syndrome. While gastric enzymes may be reduced following gastric surgery, the syndrome is primarily related to the way food moves through the digestive tract.
B. Excess secretion of digestive enzymes in the intestines does not directly cause dumping syndrome. Although enzyme levels can be affected by surgery, dumping syndrome is more about the timing and volume of food delivery to the intestines.
C. Rapid emptying of stomach contents into the small intestine is the primary cause of dumping syndrome. This occurs because the normal regulatory mechanisms of the stomach are bypassed or disrupted after gastric resection, leading to a quick shift of food into the small intestine, which causes symptoms like nausea, diarrhea, and dizziness.
D. Excess glycogen production by the liver is not related to dumping syndrome. This would be more relevant to conditions affecting glucose metabolism, not gastrointestinal emptying.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Fever and chills are often indicative of infection, which may be a concern with TPN, but they are not typically the immediate concern if the TPN solution is not infusing.
B. Shakiness and diaphoresis (sweating) can occur due to hypoglycemia, which is a potential consequence of an interrupted TPN infusion. TPN provides glucose to the client, and a disruption in the infusion could cause a drop in blood sugar, leading to shakiness and diaphoresis.
C. Excessive thirst and urination are common symptoms of hyperglycemia or diabetes, but they are not typically seen with an interrupted TPN infusion.
D. Hypertension and crackles are more related to fluid overload or heart failure, which would not be an immediate concern in the case of an infusion pump malfunction for TPN.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. While this patient is scheduled for a physical therapy session, it is not an urgent concern that would require immediate attention.
B. A routine follow-up appointment for a non-urgent condition can be managed at a later time and does not take priority over more acute concerns.
C. A patient with altered mental status and confusion should be assessed first. This could indicate a serious underlying issue such as infection, hypoxia, or a neurological condition. Altered mental status in any patient warrants immediate attention to prevent further complications.
D. Although the patient with pleuritis is in pain, moderate pleuritis is typically not an urgent condition, and pain management can be provided after more pressing concerns are addressed.
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