Anurse is discussing intravenous Amphotericin B treatment with a nursing student who is about to care for a patient with a systemic fungal infection. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

There is an infusion reaction to Amphotericin B

Infusions of Amphotericin B should be administered rapidly

The IV site should be rotated frequently to reduce the risk of phlebitis or use bigger vein for the treatment like central line

Amphotericin B is for treatment of fungal infection

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason:
Amphotericin B is known to cause infusion reactions, including fever, chills, and rigors. These reactions are common and expected when administering this medication. Therefore, the statement that there is an infusion reaction to Amphotericin B is correct and does not indicate a need for further teaching.
Choice B reason:
This choice is incorrect because infusions of Amphotericin B should not be administered rapidly. Rapid infusion can increase the risk of severe side effects and adverse reactions. The drug should be administered slowly to minimize these risks. Thus, this statement indicates a need for further teaching.
Choice C reason:
Rotating the IV site frequently or using a larger vein, such as a central line, is a standard practice to reduce the risk of phlebitis, a common complication of Amphotericin B treatment. This statement is correct and does not indicate a need for further teaching.
Choice D reason:
Amphotericin B is indeed used for the treatment of systemic fungal infections. This statement is factually accurate and does not suggest any misunderstanding on the part of the nursing student. Therefore, it does not indicate a need for further teaching.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Left ventricular heart failure can cause severe chest pain and elevated cardiac enzymes but is not as directly associated with elevated cardiac troponin levels as a myocardial infarction. The presence of elevated troponin levels specifically indicates myocardial cell injury, which is most consistent with an MI.

Choice B reason:
Unstable angina involves chest pain that is not relieved by rest and may indicate a higher risk for an MI. However, it typically does not result in elevated cardiac troponin levels unless there is actual myocardial damage. Elevated troponin is a marker for myocardial infarction rather than just unstable angina.

Choice C reason:
Myocardial infarction (MI) is the correct answer. Elevated levels of cardiac troponin are a key indicator of myocardial infarction as they reflect heart muscle damage. The patient's severe chest pain and elevated troponin levels strongly suggest that an MI has occurred.

Choice D reason:
Prinzmetal angina, or variant angina, is characterized by chest pain caused by coronary artery spasms. While it can cause significant pain, it does not typically lead to elevated cardiac troponin levels unless it results in myocardial damage, which is less common than in an MI.

A. Amoxicillin B. Reglan C. Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) D. Omeprazole

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Amoxicillin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections. It has no role in the management of atrial fibrillation, which is a cardiac rhythm disorder. Antibiotics do not address the prevention of thromboembolism or the control of heart rate or rhythm.

Choice B reason:
Reglan (metoclopramide) is a medication used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and gastroparesis. It does not have any indication for use in atrial fibrillation. The management of atrial fibrillation focuses on rate or rhythm control and anticoagulation.

Choice C reason:
Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) is an anticoagulant that is commonly prescribed for patients with atrial fibrillation to prevent stroke and systemic embolism. Since atrial fibrillation increases the risk of thromboembolism, anticoagulation is a crucial component of the treatment plan to reduce the risk of stroke.

Choice D reason:
Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used to treat acid-related stomach issues such as GERD. It is not relevant to the management of atrial fibrillation. The primary concerns in managing atrial fibrillation are controlling the heart rate and preventing thromboembolism, which omeprazole does not address.

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Anurse is discussing intravenous Amphotericin B treatment with a nursing student who is about to care for a patient with a systemic fungal infection. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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