An older client with cirrhosis of the liver and hepatic failure is placed on a low sodium diet and is receiving periodic albumin infusions. Which assessment finding indicates progress toward the desired effect of this treatment plan?
Clear, dark amber-colored urine.
Improved level of consciousness.
Prothrombin time within normal limits.
Decreased abdominal girth.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Clear, dark amber-colored urine is not an assessment finding that indicates progress toward the desired effect of this treatment plan, because it may suggest dehydration, which can worsen the client's condition. The client with cirrhosis and hepatic failure may have fluid retention, electrolyte imbalance, and renal impairment, which can affect the urine output, color, and concentration. The nurse should monitor the client's fluid intake and output, urine specific gravity, and serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen levels, and report any abnormalities to the doctor.
Choice B reason: Improved level of consciousness is an assessment finding that indicates progress toward the desired effect of this treatment plan, but it is not the most specific one. The client with cirrhosis and hepatic failure may have hepatic encephalopathy, which is a neuropsychiatric syndrome caused by the accumulation of ammonia and other toxins in the brain, due to the impaired liver function. This can cause changes in the level of consciousness, mental status, and behavior, such as confusion, lethargy, or coma. The nurse should assess the client's mental status using tools such as the Glasgow Coma Scale or the West Haven Criteria, and administer medications such as lactulose or rifaximin, as prescribed by the doctor, to reduce the ammonia levels. However, the level of consciousness can also be affected by other factors, such as hypoxia, hypoglycemia, or infection, and it is not directly related to the low sodium diet or the albumin infusions.
Choice C reason: Prothrombin time within normal limits is an assessment finding that indicates progress toward the desired effect of this treatment plan, but it is not the most specific one. The client with cirrhosis and hepatic failure may have coagulopathy, which is a bleeding disorder caused by the reduced synthesis of clotting factors, such as prothrombin, by the damaged liver. This can increase the risk of bleeding and hemorrhage, especially from the esophageal varices, which are dilated veins in the lower esophagus that can rupture due to portal hypertension, a complication of cirrhosis. The nurse should monitor the client's coagulation status using tests such as prothrombin time, international normalized ratio, and activated partial thromboplastin time, and administer blood products or vitamin K, as ordered by the doctor, to correct the coagulation defects. However, the prothrombin time can also be affected by other factors, such as anticoagulant therapy, vitamin K deficiency, or liver transplantation, and it is not directly related to the low sodium diet or the albumin infusions.
Choice D reason: Decreased abdominal girth is the most specific assessment finding that indicates progress toward the desired effect of this treatment plan, because it reflects the reduction of ascites, which is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, due to portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia, common features of cirrhosis and hepatic failure. The low sodium diet and the albumin infusions are interventions that can help to decrease the fluid retention and increase the oncotic pressure, which can draw the fluid back into the blood vessels and reduce the ascites. The nurse should measure the client's abdominal girth daily, using a tape measure at the level of the umbilicus, and record the results. The nurse should also monitor the client's weight, edema, and abdominal discomfort, and report any signs of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, such as fever, abdominal pain, or leukocytosis, to the doctor.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Joint pain is a common symptom of SLE, which is an autoimmune disease that causes inflammation and damage to various organs and tissues. Joint pain can be managed with anti-inflammatory drugs, analgesics, and corticosteroids. Joint pain is not a life-threatening finding that requires immediate attention from the health care provider.
Choice B reason: Hematuria is the presence of blood in the urine, which can indicate kidney damage or failure. Kidney involvement is one of the most serious complications of SLE, which can lead to end-stage renal disease and require dialysis or transplantation. Hematuria is a critical finding that requires prompt intervention and treatment from the health care provider.
Choice C reason: Low grade fever is another common symptom of SLE, which can be caused by infection, inflammation, or medication side effects. Low grade fever can be treated with antipyretics, fluids, and antibiotics if needed. Low grade fever is not a life-threatening finding that requires immediate attention from the health care provider.
Choice D reason: Muscle atrophy is the loss of muscle mass and strength, which can occur due to inactivity, malnutrition, or steroid use. Muscle atrophy can be prevented or reversed with exercise, nutrition, and physiotherapy. Muscle atrophy is not a life-threatening finding that requires immediate attention from the health care provider.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Obtaining a prostate-specific antigen blood level test is not a way to reduce risk factors for BPH, but a way to screen for prostate cancer, which is a different condition. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is a protein produced by the prostate gland, and its level may be elevated in men with prostate cancer or other prostate problems, such as BPH or prostatitis. However, PSA testing is not recommended for all men, and it has some limitations and risks. The nurse should discuss the benefits and harms of PSA testing with the client and help him make an informed decision.
Choice B reason: Taking vitamin supplements is not a proven way to reduce risk factors for BPH, and it may have some adverse effects, such as interactions with medications or increased bleeding. There is no clear evidence that any specific vitamin or mineral can prevent or treat BPH, and some studies have suggested that high doses of certain vitamins, such as vitamin E or folic acid, may increase the risk of prostate cancer. The nurse should advise the client to eat a balanced diet that includes fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and lean proteins, and to consult a doctor before taking any supplements.
Choice C reason: Increasing physical activity is a beneficial way to reduce risk factors for BPH, as well as to improve overall health and well-being. Physical activity can help maintain a healthy weight, lower blood pressure, reduce inflammation, and enhance blood flow to the pelvic area, which may prevent or delay the development of BPH. The nurse should encourage the client to engage in moderate-intensity aerobic exercise, such as brisk walking, cycling, or swimming, for at least 150 minutes per week, and to include some strength training and flexibility exercises as well.
Choice D reason: Consuming a high protein diet is not a helpful way to reduce risk factors for BPH, and it may have some negative effects, such as increasing the risk of kidney stones, gout, or osteoporosis. A high protein diet may also increase the intake of saturated fat, cholesterol, and sodium, which can raise the risk of cardiovascular disease and hypertension, which are also risk factors for BPH. The nurse should advise the client to limit the intake of animal protein, such as red meat, poultry, eggs, and dairy products, and to choose plant-based protein sources, such as beans, nuts, seeds, and soy products, more often.
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