An older adult client presents with dyspnea on exertion, cough with green sputum, fever, and fatigue. The nurse notes thick rhonchi/coarse crackles upon lung auscultation and the patient's chest X-ray shows bilateral consolidation. The nurse anticipates which of the following interventions?
Western Blot test
Initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotics
Initiation of Isoniazid and Rifampin
Antiretroviral therapy.
The Correct Answer is B
A) "Western Blot test":
. The Western Blot test is typically used to confirm HIV infection after a positive enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). This test is not relevant for diagnosing pneumonia, which is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms. The patient's presentation — including dyspnea on exertion, cough with green sputum, fever, fatigue, and bilateral consolidation on the chest X-ray — points to a respiratory infection (likely pneumonia) rather than an HIV-related issue.
B) "Initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotics":
. The patient's symptoms, including dyspnea, cough with green sputum, fever, fatigue, and bilateral consolidation on chest X-ray, strongly suggest community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) or hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP). In either case, broad-spectrum antibiotics are indicated to cover a wide range of potential bacterial pathogens, especially in older adults or those with comorbidities who may be at risk for more severe infections. Immediate treatment with antibiotics is necessary to prevent complications such as respiratory failure or sepsis. Once cultures and sensitivities are obtained, the antibiotics may be adjusted based on the specific pathogen.
C) "Initiation of Isoniazid and Rifampin":
. Isoniazid and Rifampin are used to treat tuberculosis (TB), but this patient’s symptoms do not indicate TB. The patient is experiencing acute respiratory symptoms, including fever, cough with sputum production, and consolidation on chest X-ray, which are more indicative of pneumonia than of tuberculosis. Although TB could present similarly, additional testing such as a TB skin test (TST) or sputum culture for acid-fast bacilli (AFB) would be necessary before initiating antitubercular therapy. The priority intervention here is antibiotic treatment for bacterial pneumonia.
D) "Antiretroviral therapy":
. Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is used to treat HIV, but there is no indication that this patient has HIV. The symptoms presented — dyspnea, productive cough, fever, and bilateral consolidation on chest X-ray — are more consistent with an acute bacterial infection such as pneumonia rather than an HIV-related complication. ART would only be appropriate if the patient were known to have HIV and developed an opportunistic infection; however, this patient's presentation suggests a primary respiratory infection, not an HIV-related issue.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["300"]
Explanation
Given:
IV fluids initiated at: 03:30
Infusion rate: 120 mL/hr
To find:
Volume of IV fluids infused by 06:00
Step 1: Calculate the duration of infusion
Time elapsed from 03:30 to 06:00 is 2 hours and 30 minutes, which is equal to 2.5 hours.
Step 2: Calculate the volume of IV fluids infused
Volume = Infusion rate x Time elapsed
Volume = 120 mL/hr x 2.5 hours = 300 mL
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. The client should report to an urgent care for potential hypokalemia:
While ACE inhibitors like Captopril can increase potassium levels (hyperkalemia) due to their effects on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, they are not typically associated with hypokalemia. The client's complaint of a dry cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors, not an indication of low potassium levels. Therefore, the recommendation to seek urgent care for hypokalemia is not appropriate in this case.
B. The client should immediately use an epinephrine auto-injector (Epi-Pen) and call 9-1-1:
The use of an epinephrine auto-injector is specifically indicated for severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis), which typically present with symptoms such as difficulty breathing, swelling of the throat, or anaphylactic shock. A chronic dry cough associated with the use of Captopril is not indicative of an allergic reaction, but rather a known adverse effect of ACE inhibitors. Therefore, this response is inappropriate for the situation described.
C. The client should contact their provider, who may switch them to a different medication:
A chronic dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors like Captopril, occurring in some individuals due to the accumulation of bradykinin. If the cough is bothersome, the best course of action is for the client to contact their healthcare provider. The provider may consider switching the patient to an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), which does not typically cause this side effect. This is the most appropriate and safe action.
D. The client should stop taking the Lisinopril immediately:
Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, similar to Captopril, and shares the same potential side effects, including a chronic dry cough. However, the client should not stop taking their medication without consulting their healthcare provider. Discontinuing the medication abruptly can result in uncontrolled hypertension and other risks. The correct course of action is to contact the provider to discuss possible alternatives, not to stop the medication independently.
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