Which of the following would not be an appropriate nursing intervention when preparing to administer a blood transfusion?

Having 2 RNs ensure the blood product is properly labeled and matches the client’s identification

Ensuring that the client signed a consent form for receiving blood transfusions beforehand

Preparing a primary and secondary IV tubing

Obtaining a bag of 0.9% sodium chloride

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A) Having 2 RNs ensure the blood product is properly labeled and matches the client’s identification:
Two registered nurses must independently verify that the blood product matches the patient's identification and that it is properly labeled. This is a critical safety measure to prevent errors, such as mismatched blood transfusions, which can lead to severe complications like hemolytic reactions. Proper verification before administration is a standard safety protocol in blood transfusion procedures.

B) Ensuring that the client signed a consent form for receiving blood transfusions beforehand:
Obtaining informed consent is a vital legal and ethical step before administering a blood transfusion. The nurse must ensure that the patient understands the potential risks and benefits of the procedure and has signed a consent form prior to transfusion. Without consent, the transfusion cannot legally be performed. This is a key part of patient rights and nursing responsibilities.

C) Preparing a primary and secondary IV tubing:
For blood transfusions, only blood administration tubing should be used, which typically includes a filter to prevent the infusion of any debris or clots. Using regular IV tubing (primary and secondary) for blood administration is not recommended, as it may not have the necessary filter and could potentially introduce contaminants. Blood should always be administered with tubing specifically designed for that purpose.

D) Obtaining a bag of 0.9% sodium chloride:
Normal saline is typically used as the solution to flush the IV line before and after the transfusion. It is compatible with blood products and helps to prevent clotting or reactions in the line. This is an essential step to ensure safe and effective blood administration.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Respiratory acidosis:
Respiratory acidosis is characterized by an increased CO2 level (above 45 mmHg) due to hypoventilation or impaired gas exchange, leading to a decrease in pH (below 7.35). In this case, the CO2 level is 25 mmHg, which is lower than normal and suggests a loss of CO2, not an accumulation. Therefore, respiratory acidosis is not the correct interpretation of these ABG results.
B. Metabolic acidosis:
Metabolic acidosis occurs when the pH drops below 7.35 due to conditions like kidney failure, diarrhea, or diabetic ketoacidosis. This would typically be accompanied by a low bicarbonate (HCO3-) level (less than 22 mEq/L). However, in this case, the pH is 7.52 (alkalotic), and the HCO3- level is 24 mEq/L, which is within the normal range. Thus, metabolic acidosis is not the correct interpretation.

C. Respiratory alkalosis:
Respiratory alkalosis is characterized by a decrease in CO2 (less than 35 mmHg) due to hyperventilation, which causes an increase in pH (above 7.45). In this case, the pH is 7.52 (alkalotic), and the CO2 is 25 mmHg, which is lower than the normal range (35–45 mmHg). The bicarbonate (HCO3-) level is 24 mEq/L, which is normal and compensatory. This matches the pattern of respiratory alkalosis, where the body compensates with a normal bicarbonate level as CO2 decreases.

D. Metabolic alkalosis:
Metabolic alkalosis occurs when the pH rises above 7.45, often due to excessive vomiting, diuretic use, or antacid overuse, leading to an increase in bicarbonate (HCO3-) levels. While the pH is 7.52, indicating alkalosis, the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level is 24 mEq/L, which is within the normal range for bicarbonate. In metabolic alkalosis, you would typically see an elevated HCO3- level, which is not the case here. Therefore, metabolic alkalosis is not the correct interpretation of these ABG results.

A. Pernicious anemia B. Blood loss anemia C. Sickle cell anemia D. Aplastic anemia

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Pernicious anemia:
Pernicious anemia is primarily caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, often due to a lack of intrinsic factor needed for absorption in the gut. It typically presents with symptoms like weakness, fatigue, and neurological manifestations such as numbness or tingling. However, the client’s presentation does not suggest a vitamin B12 deficiency or neurological signs. Additionally, pernicious anemia is not typically associated with heavy menstrual periods,
which are more indicative of blood loss anemia.

B. Blood loss anemia:
Blood loss anemia is the most likely diagnosis in this case, especially in the context of heavy menstrual periods, which can cause significant blood loss over time. The client’s hemoglobin level of 6.9 g/dL indicates severe anemia, which is consistent with the cumulative effects of chronic blood loss. This type of anemia results from a decrease in red blood cell count due to bleeding, which can lead to symptoms like weakness, fatigue, and pallor.

C. Sickle cell anemia:
Sickle cell anemia is a genetic condition characterized by abnormally shaped red blood cells, which can lead to hemolysis and episodes of pain. While it can cause symptoms like fatigue and weakness, sickle cell anemia typically presents earlier in life and is more associated with episodes of severe pain and organ damage. Additionally, the patient’s history does not mention episodes of pain or other hallmark signs of sickle cell disease, such as swelling in the hands or feet or recurrent infections.

D. Aplastic anemia:
Aplastic anemia occurs when the bone marrow fails to produce enough blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. It presents with symptoms like weakness, fatigue, frequent infections, and bruising. Although this client does have anemia, the lack of additional signs (such as petechiae, infections, or bleeding) makes this diagnosis less likely. Aplastic anemia is also usually diagnosed with bone marrow biopsy, which is not suggested by this client's presentation.

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Which of the following would not be an appropriate nursing intervention when preparing to administer a blood transfusion?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

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