The nurse is caring for a client experiencing acute hyperglycemia. The nurse would expect all of the following interventions except which?
Glucagon IM
Regular insulin IV infusion
Potassium laboratory monitoring
IV fluid replacement
The Correct Answer is A
A. Glucagon IM:
Glucagon is used to treat hypoglycemia (low blood sugar), not hyperglycemia. It is typically administered intramuscularly in cases of severe hypoglycemia to rapidly raise blood glucose levels. In acute hyperglycemia, the blood glucose is already elevated, so glucagon is not appropriate. The correct treatment for hyperglycemia includes insulin administration, fluid replacement, and monitoring of electrolytes.
B. Regular insulin IV infusion:
In acute hyperglycemia, particularly in cases of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) or hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS), regular insulin is commonly administered intravenously to reduce blood glucose levels. It acts rapidly to lower blood glucose, and the dose can be adjusted based on the client's response. Therefore, this is an expected intervention in the management of acute hyperglycemia.
C. Potassium laboratory monitoring:
In acute hyperglycemia, particularly during insulin administration, potassium levels should be closely monitored. Insulin can drive potassium into cells, potentially leading to hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Since hyperglycemia treatment can alter electrolyte balance, potassium levels need to be frequently checked to avoid complications like arrhythmias or muscle weakness. This is an important intervention in managing hyperglycemia.
D. IV fluid replacement:
IV fluid replacement is a crucial part of managing acute hyperglycemia, particularly in conditions like DKA and HHS. These conditions cause dehydration due to osmotic diuresis, and fluid replacement helps to restore normal hydration status and support renal function. The nurse would expect IV fluid administration to correct electrolyte imbalances and improve circulatory volume.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. The blockage is most likely in the right parietal region:
While a facial droop and weakness can be indicative of a stroke, the specific location of the blockage cannot be definitively determined based on the symptoms alone. A right-sided facial droop suggests that the lesion or event likely involves the left side of the brain, particularly the frontal or temporal regions, as these areas are typically associated with facial motor control. A parietal lesion would more commonly result in sensory deficits or spatial issues, not primarily facial droop. Therefore, this statement is not correct in this case.
B. This type of event can be one of the primary warning signs of a future stroke:
The client’s presentation of unilateral facial droop and weakness that resolves spontaneously within an hour is highly consistent with a transient ischemic attack (TIA). A TIA, often referred to as a "mini-stroke," is characterized by temporary neurological deficits that resolve without permanent damage. TIAs are considered warning signs of a potential future stroke, and the client should be evaluated promptly to address risk factors and prevent a more serious, permanent stroke.
C. The signs and symptoms are most consistent with an acute hemorrhagic stroke:
An acute hemorrhagic stroke typically presents with sudden and severe neurological deficits, such as a severe headache, vomiting, and loss of consciousness. Hemorrhagic strokes do not typically resolve spontaneously within an hour. The client's symptoms (unilateral facial droop and weakness that resolve within an hour) are more indicative of a TIA, not a hemorrhagic stroke. A hemorrhagic stroke would likely result in sustained deficits and a more urgent clinical presentation.
D. The signs and symptoms are most consistent with a focal awareness seizure:
Focal awareness seizures (previously known as simple partial seizures) generally involve abnormal electrical activity in a specific area of the brain, leading to symptoms such as motor twitches or sensory disturbances, but not typically a full facial droop or weakness. These seizures do not cause symptoms that resolve in such a short time, nor do they present with unilateral weakness in the manner described here. Therefore, this scenario is not consistent with a seizure disorder.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) "Administer IV hydralazine and monitor blood pressure":
. The patient's elevated blood pressure (172/92 mmHg), along with headaches and blurred vision, could indicate a hypertensive emergency, a serious condition where extremely high blood pressure can cause acute organ damage. Hydralazine is a common intravenous antihypertensive medication used to lower blood pressure quickly in these situations. The nurse should administer hydralazine as prescribed and closely monitor the blood pressure to prevent complications like stroke, heart failure, or kidney damage. Blood pressure management is the priority, as the patient's symptoms are likely related to the elevated BP.
B) "Administer oxygen at 10 liters/minute by non-rebreather mask":
. While oxygen therapy may be appropriate for patients with respiratory distress or hypoxia, the patient's SpO2 is 97% on room air, indicating that there is no immediate oxygenation issue. Administering oxygen unnecessarily could lead to oxygen toxicity, and it is not the priority in this case. The patient's main concern is their elevated blood pressure, which requires urgent management.
C) "Administer acetaminophen 650 mg PO re-check temperature":
. While headaches are one of the patient's complaints, there is no indication of fever (the temperature is 98.6°F). Administering acetaminophen would be appropriate for pain relief, but it is not the priority in this case. The elevated blood pressure and potential hypertensive emergency are the primary issues that need to be addressed first.
D) "Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride at 120 mL/hour":
. Normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride) is typically used for hydration, but there is no indication that the patient is dehydrated or that intravenous fluids are the priority. In cases of hypertensive emergency, the goal is to lower blood pressure using antihypertensive medications, not to infuse fluids. Fluid administration could potentially worsen the situation if the elevated blood pressure is not addressed first.
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