An intravenous (IV) antibiotic is prescribed for a patient with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses.
Which schedule is best for administering this prescription?
1000, 1600, 2200, 0400.
Administer with meals and a bedtime snack.
Give in equally divided doses during waking hours.
0800, 1200, 1600, 2000.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Administering the medication at 1000, 1600, 2200, and 0400 would not be the best schedule because it does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. This could lead to periods of subtherapeutic medication levels and periods of potential toxicity.
Choice B rationale
Administering the medication with meals and a bedtime snack is not the best schedule for this medication. While some medications need to be administered with food, there is no indication
that this medication needs to be. Furthermore, this schedule could lead to uneven distribution of the medication throughout the day.
Choice C rationale
Giving the medication in equally divided doses during waking hours is not the best schedule because it does not take into account the half-life of the medication or the patient’s sleep schedule. This could lead to subtherapeutic levels of the medication during the night.
Choice D rationale
Administering the medication at 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000 is the best schedule for this medication. It evenly distributes the doses throughout the day, which can help maintain a therapeutic level of the medication and reduce the risk of toxicity.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C,A,B,D
Explanation
Step 1: Complete a focused assessment. The first step in managing a patient with abdominal pain and distention, vomiting, and constipation is to perform a focused assessment. This includes assessing the patient’s vital signs, pain level, abdominal distention, bowel sounds, and any other relevant physical findings.
Step 2: Elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed can help reduce the risk of aspiration, especially in a patient who has recently vomited.
Step 3: Send the emesis sample to the lab. Analyzing the vomitus can provide important information about the possible causes of the patient’s symptoms. For example, the presence of blood could suggest a gastrointestinal bleed.
Step 4: Offer PRN pain medication. After the initial assessment and interventions, the nurse should address the patient’s comfort. Pain management is an important part of patient care, but in this scenario, it is not the highest priority.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While obtaining an analgesic prescription might help to alleviate the patient’s joint pain, it is not the first intervention that should be implemented in an acute adrenal crisis. The patient’s low blood pressure and high heart rate are immediate life-threatening conditions that need to be addressed first.
Choice B rationale
Infusing an intravenous fluid bolus is the first intervention that should be implemented in an acute adrenal crisis. This can help to increase the patient’s blood pressure, which is dangerously low.
Choice C rationale
Administering a PRN oral antipyretic could help to reduce the patient’s fever, but it is not the first intervention that should be implemented in an acute adrenal crisis. The patient’s low blood pressure and high heart rate are immediate life-threatening conditions that need to be addressed first.
Choice D rationale
Covering the patient with a cooling blanket could help to reduce the patient’s fever, but it is not the first intervention that should be implemented in an acute adrenal crisis. The patient’s low blood pressure and high heart rate are immediate life-threatening conditions that need to be addressed first.
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