An intravenous (IV) antibiotic is prescribed for a patient with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses.
Which schedule is best for administering this prescription?
1000, 1600, 2200, 0400.
Administer with meals and a bedtime snack.
Give in equally divided doses during waking hours.
0800, 1200, 1600, 2000.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Administering the medication at 1000, 1600, 2200, and 0400 would not be the best schedule because it does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. This could lead to periods of subtherapeutic medication levels and periods of potential toxicity.
Choice B rationale
Administering the medication with meals and a bedtime snack is not the best schedule for this medication. While some medications need to be administered with food, there is no indication
that this medication needs to be. Furthermore, this schedule could lead to uneven distribution of the medication throughout the day.
Choice C rationale
Giving the medication in equally divided doses during waking hours is not the best schedule because it does not take into account the half-life of the medication or the patient’s sleep schedule. This could lead to subtherapeutic levels of the medication during the night.
Choice D rationale
Administering the medication at 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000 is the best schedule for this medication. It evenly distributes the doses throughout the day, which can help maintain a therapeutic level of the medication and reduce the risk of toxicity.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
In a client with gastroenteritis experiencing fever, chills, anorexia, and diarrhea, fluid volume deficit is a major concern. Diarrhea and fever can both lead to significant fluid loss. If not addressed, fluid volume deficit can lead to serious complications such as hypovolemic shock.
Choice B rationale
While impaired bed mobility may be a concern due to the client’s history of stroke, it is not the highest priority in this situation. The immediate physiological needs related to the client’s gastroenteritis and potential fluid volume deficit should be addressed first.
Choice C rationale
Caregiver role strain may be a concern given that the client is dependent on care provided by the spouse. However, this psychosocial issue is not the highest priority when the client is experiencing acute physical symptoms that need immediate attention.
Choice D rationale
Bowel incontinence could be a concern for a client with gastroenteritis. However, the risk of fluid volume deficit due to diarrhea and fever is a more immediate concern.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Moon facies, characterized by a round face, is a side effect of long-term use of prednisone. However, it is not the most important symptom for the client to report to the healthcare provider in this context.
Choice B rationale
Abdominal striae, or stretch marks on the abdomen, can also be a side effect of long-term use of prednisone. While it may be a concern for some patients due to cosmetic reasons, it is not the most critical symptom to report in this case.
Choice C rationale
Gastric irritation is a common side effect of prednisone and can lead to more serious complications such as gastric ulcers if not addressed promptly. Therefore, it is the most important symptom for the client to report to the healthcare provider.
Choice D rationale
Rapid weight gain can be a side effect of prednisone use. While it is important to monitor weight while on this medication, it is not the most critical symptom to report in comparison to gastric irritation.
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