An intravenous (IV) antibiotic is prescribed for a patient with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses.
Which schedule is best for administering this prescription?
1000, 1600, 2200, 0400.
Administer with meals and a bedtime snack.
Give in equally divided doses during waking hours.
0800, 1200, 1600, 2000.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Administering the medication at 1000, 1600, 2200, and 0400 would not be the best schedule because it does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. This could lead to periods of subtherapeutic medication levels and periods of potential toxicity.
Choice B rationale
Administering the medication with meals and a bedtime snack is not the best schedule for this medication. While some medications need to be administered with food, there is no indication
that this medication needs to be. Furthermore, this schedule could lead to uneven distribution of the medication throughout the day.
Choice C rationale
Giving the medication in equally divided doses during waking hours is not the best schedule because it does not take into account the half-life of the medication or the patient’s sleep schedule. This could lead to subtherapeutic levels of the medication during the night.
Choice D rationale
Administering the medication at 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000 is the best schedule for this medication. It evenly distributes the doses throughout the day, which can help maintain a therapeutic level of the medication and reduce the risk of toxicity.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Testing the fluid on the dressing for glucose is the immediate course of action when a nurse notices clear fluid on the surgical dressing of a patient who has just returned from lumbar spinal surgery. Clear fluid could be cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), which contains glucose. If the fluid is positive for glucose, it could indicate a CSF leak, which requires immediate medical attention.
Choice B rationale
Changing the dressing using a compression bandage is not the immediate course of action. The source of the fluid needs to be identified first.
Choice C rationale
Marking the drainage area with a pen and continuing to monitor is not the immediate course of action. The source of the fluid needs to be identified first.
Choice D rationale
Documenting the findings in the electronic medical record is important, but it is not the immediate course of action. The source of the fluid needs to be identified first.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While obtaining a serum drug screen might be helpful in confirming the presence of benzodiazepines or other substances, it is not the most immediate concern in a client experiencing severe agitation and tremors due to withdrawal.
Choice B rationale
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and would not be effective in managing withdrawal symptoms from benzodiazepines.
Choice C rationale
Seizure precautions should be initiated as withdrawal from benzodiazepines can lead to severe withdrawal symptoms, including seizures. Therefore, ensuring the safety of the client by initiating seizure precautions is the best initial nursing action.
Choice D rationale
While education is an important part of nursing care, in this situation, the client’s immediate physical needs take precedence.
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