The patient is a 49-year-old male who has been experiencing flu-like symptoms, including fever and chest congestion, for 4 days.
He came to the emergency department (ED) last night when his breathing difficulties increased. He has a history of smoking half a pack of cigarettes a day for 20 years.
He has no significant medical or surgical history.
Which two orders should the nurse prioritize?
Chest x-ray
Run 0.9% sodium chloride IV infusion at 150 mL/hour
Sputum culture
Start oxygen 3 L/minute via nasal cannula
Start a peripheral IV
Acetaminophen 350 mg PO every 6 hours for temperature greater than 38.3° C .
Correct Answer : A,D
Choice A rationale
A chest x-ray is a critical diagnostic tool for a patient presenting with flu-like symptoms, fever, chest congestion, and increased breathing difficulties. It can help identify conditions such as pneumonia or other lung diseases, which could be causing the patient’s symptoms.
Choice B rationale
While hydration is important, running a 0.9% sodium chloride IV infusion at 150 mL/hour is not the most immediate need for this patient. The patient’s symptoms are primarily respiratory, and there is no indication of dehydration.
Choice C rationale
A sputum culture could be useful for diagnosing bacterial infections of the respiratory tract. However, it is not the most immediate need for this patient, as the results of a culture test can take time to come back.
Choice D rationale
This is the correct answer. Given the patient’s increased breathing difficulties, starting oxygen therapy can help improve the patient’s oxygen levels and ease their breathing.
Choice E rationale
Starting a peripheral IV might be necessary for administering medications or fluids, but it is not the most immediate need in this scenario.
Choice F rationale
While controlling the patient’s fever is important, it is not as immediate a need as performing a chest x-ray and starting oxygen therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While taking the blood pressure in the other arm might avoid the spasms, it does not address the underlying cause of the spasms. Therefore, this is not the best action for the nurse to take.
Choice B rationale
Using a different sphygmomanometer would not necessarily prevent the spasms from occurring. The spasms are likely not caused by the equipment itself, but rather a physiological issue within the client.
Choice C rationale
The spasms in the client’s hand and fingers could be a sign of hypocalcemia, a condition where there is not enough calcium in the blood. One of the symptoms of hypocalcemia is muscle spasms or tetany. Therefore, reviewing the client’s serum calcium level would be an appropriate action to take.
Choice D rationale
Administering a PRN antianxiety medication would not address the underlying cause of the spasms. While anxiety can cause muscle tension and spasms, there is no indication in the scenario that anxiety is the cause of this client’s symptoms.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Mixing the dextrose in a 50 mL piggyback for a total volume of 100 mL is not the best method for administering the medication. This would dilute the dextrose, potentially reducing its effectiveness.
Choice B rationale
Diluting the dextrose in one liter of 0.9% normal saline solution is not the best method for administering the medication. This would significantly dilute the dextrose, potentially reducing its effectiveness.
Choice C rationale
Asking the pharmacist to add the dextrose to a total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution is not the best method for administering the medication. This would not provide the immediate glucose boost needed to counteract insulin shock.
Choice D rationale
Pushing the undiluted dextrose slowly through the currently infusing IV is the best method for administering the medication. This allows for rapid administration of a concentrated glucose solution, which is necessary to quickly raise blood glucose levels in a patient experiencing insulin shock.
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