A client with gout in the left great toe has received a prescription for prednisone 30 mg by mouth to be administered each day.
Which symptom is most important for the client to report to the healthcare provider?
Moon facies.
Abdominal striae.
Gastric irritation.
Rapid weight gain.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Moon facies, characterized by a round face, is a side effect of long-term use of prednisone. However, it is not the most important symptom for the client to report to the healthcare provider in this context.
Choice B rationale
Abdominal striae, or stretch marks on the abdomen, can also be a side effect of long-term use of prednisone. While it may be a concern for some patients due to cosmetic reasons, it is not the most critical symptom to report in this case.
Choice C rationale
Gastric irritation is a common side effect of prednisone and can lead to more serious complications such as gastric ulcers if not addressed promptly. Therefore, it is the most important symptom for the client to report to the healthcare provider.
Choice D rationale
Rapid weight gain can be a side effect of prednisone use. While it is important to monitor weight while on this medication, it is not the most critical symptom to report in comparison to gastric irritation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While a high-calorie, high-protein diet can be beneficial for patients recovering from surgery or illness, it is not the immediate next step after collecting bone aspirate specimens for culture and sensitivity and applying a cast to a patient’s lower leg. The priority is to address the infection identified through the bone aspirate specimens.
Choice B rationale
Beginning parenteral antibiotic therapy is the appropriate next step after collecting bone aspirate specimens for culture and sensitivity in a patient with osteomyelitis. Osteomyelitis is an infection in the bone, and antibiotics are typically the first line of treatment. Therefore, this choice is the correct answer.
Choice C rationale
Administering antiemetic agents would be appropriate if the patient were experiencing nausea or vomiting. However, there is no indication in the question that the patient is experiencing these symptoms. Therefore, this choice is not the correct answer.
Choice D rationale
Bivalving the cast for distal compromise would be appropriate if there were signs of compromised circulation or nerve function below the level of the cast. However, there is no indication in the question that the patient is experiencing these issues. Therefore, this choice is not the correct answer.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Mixing the dextrose in a 50 mL piggyback for a total volume of 100 mL is not the best method for administering the medication. This would dilute the dextrose, potentially reducing its effectiveness.
Choice B rationale
Diluting the dextrose in one liter of 0.9% normal saline solution is not the best method for administering the medication. This would significantly dilute the dextrose, potentially reducing its effectiveness.
Choice C rationale
Asking the pharmacist to add the dextrose to a total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution is not the best method for administering the medication. This would not provide the immediate glucose boost needed to counteract insulin shock.
Choice D rationale
Pushing the undiluted dextrose slowly through the currently infusing IV is the best method for administering the medication. This allows for rapid administration of a concentrated glucose solution, which is necessary to quickly raise blood glucose levels in a patient experiencing insulin shock.
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