An emergency department nurse triages a group of clients who were injured in a school bus crash. Which of the following clients should the nurse have the provider evaluate first?
A client who has a forehead wound that is bleeding copiously
A client who has a compound fracture of the femur and is crying in pain
A client who was unconscious at the scene and now reports diplopia and nausea
A client who has several missing teeth and a swollen, ecchymotic upper lip
The Correct Answer is C
A. A client who has a forehead wound that is bleeding copiously. Although bleeding may appear dramatic, most scalp wounds bleed heavily and can be controlled with pressure. This is not immediately life-threatening if the client is stable.
B. A client who has a compound fracture of the femur and is crying in pain. This is a serious injury with risk for blood loss and infection, but the client is alert and stable enough to express pain, suggesting less immediate neurologic risk than other clients.
C. A client who was unconscious at the scene and now reports diplopia and nausea. This client likely has a head injury with signs of increased intracranial pressure or concussion (diplopia = double vision, nausea, and prior loss of consciousness). These are neurological red flags and require immediate evaluation to prevent deterioration.
D. A client who has several missing teeth and a swollen, ecchymotic upper lip. While painful and concerning, oral trauma without airway compromise is less urgent than potential brain injury.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Widening pulse pressure. This is typically associated with conditions like increased intracranial pressure or severe aortic regurgitation, not cardiac tamponade. Tamponade usually results in narrowed pulse pressure.
B. Coarse lung sounds. These may indicate fluid overload or pulmonary congestion, but they are not specific to cardiac tamponade and occur later or in different conditions.
C. Muffled heart sounds. This is a classic early sign of cardiac tamponade, caused by fluid accumulation in the pericardial sac, which dampens heart sounds on auscultation. It is part of Beck’s triad (muffled heart sounds, hypotension, and jugular vein distention).
D. Decreased jugular vein distention. In cardiac tamponade, jugular vein distention increases due to impaired venous return to the heart. Decreased JVD would be an unexpected finding in this condition.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Draw up regular insulin prior to NPH insulin. This is the correct technique when mixing short-acting (regular) and intermediate-acting (NPH) insulins in the same syringe. Drawing up regular insulin first prevents contamination of the clear insulin vial with the cloudy NPH, which could alter the action of the regular insulin.
B. Roll the syringe gently to ensure mixture of the insulins. Insulin should be mixed in the vial before drawing it into the syringe—not after. NPH insulin should be gently rolled between the hands to mix it, but the syringe itself should not be rolled after drawing both insulins, as this can introduce bubbles and affect dosing accuracy.
C. Inject into the vastus lateralis. The preferred sites for subcutaneous insulin administration are areas with sufficient subcutaneous tissue, such as the abdomen, upper outer arms, thighs, or buttocks. The vastus lateralis is more commonly used for intramuscular injections, such as vaccines.
D. Use a 15° angle for the injection. A 15° angle is appropriate for intradermal injections, not subcutaneous insulin injections. For insulin, the correct angle is typically 45° or 90°, depending on the client’s body habitus and needle length, to ensure proper subcutaneous delivery.
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