All of the following are first generation antipsychotics except,
clozapine (Clozaril)
haloperidol (Haldol)
fluphenazine (Prolixin)
chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
The Correct Answer is A
A. Clozapine (Clozaril) is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic known for its strong dopamine (D2) and serotonin (5-HT2A) blockade. It is primarily used for treatment-resistant schizophrenia but has a high risk of agranulocytosis, metabolic syndrome, and sedation, requiring regular blood monitoring.
B. Haloperidol (Haldol) is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic that strongly blocks dopamine (D2) receptors, leading to a high risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as dystonia, tardive dyskinesia, and akathisia. It is commonly used for acute psychosis and agitation.
C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin is a first-generation antipsychotic that also strongly antagonizes D2 receptors, making it effective for chronic schizophrenia but highly associated with EPS. It is available in long-acting injectable (LAI) form for maintenance therapy.
D. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is a first-generation, low-potency antipsychotic with strong sedative, anticholinergic, and hypotensive effects. While it has a lower risk of EPS compared to high-potency FGAs like haloperidol, it causes more sedation, orthostatic hypotension, and weight gain due to histamine and muscarinic receptor blockade.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Severe temper outbursts. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD) is characterized by frequent, severe temper outbursts that are out of proportion to the situation. These outbursts can be verbal or physical and occur at least three times per week, persisting for one year or more.
B. Struggle to regulate emotions. Individuals with DMDD have difficulty managing emotions, particularly anger and frustration. This emotional dysregulation leads to persistent mood instability, which interferes with daily functioning at home, school, and in social settings.
C. Hyperactivity. Hyperactivity is not a core symptom of DMDD but is more commonly associated with Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). While some children with DMDD may also have ADHD, DMDD primarily involves severe mood disturbances rather than impulsivity or excessive movement.
D. Chronic irritability. Persistent irritability is a hallmark of DMDD, with children and adolescents experiencing near-constant irritability between temper outbursts. Unlike episodic mood disorders like bipolar disorder, DMDD symptoms are chronic and ongoing without distinct mood episodes.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Fear of abandonment. Individuals with borderline personality disorder (BPD) have an intense fear of abandonment, leading to frantic efforts to avoid real or imagined rejection. This fear often results in unstable relationships, clingy behavior, or extreme emotional reactions to perceived neglect.
B. No remorse. Lack of remorse is characteristic of antisocial personality disorder (ASPD), not BPD. People with BPD may experience guilt, regret, and self-loathing, particularly after impulsive actions or relationship conflicts. Unlike ASPD, they do not engage in manipulative or harmful behavior without concern for others' feelings.
C. Mood swings. Rapid and intense mood swings are a hallmark of BPD. Affected individuals may shift from euphoria to despair within hours, often triggered by interpersonal stressors. This emotional instability contributes to self-destructive behaviors and difficulty maintaining relationships.
D. Impulsivity. People with BPD frequently engage in impulsive and reckless behaviors, such as substance abuse, binge eating, reckless driving, or self-harm. These behaviors are often driven by emotional dysregulation and difficulty coping with distress.
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