All are symptoms of autism spectrum disorder except.
Stereotypic movements
Restricted interest
Social communication deficit
Receptive language dysfunction
The Correct Answer is D
A. Stereotypic movements. Repetitive motor behaviors, such as hand-flapping, rocking, and spinning, are characteristic of autism spectrum disorder (ASD). These stereotypic movements serve as self-stimulatory behaviors and may help regulate sensory input.
B. Restricted interest. Individuals with ASD often display intense, fixated interests in specific topics or objects (e.g., an obsession with maps, numbers, or train schedules). These restricted interests are highly focused and often interfere with daily functioning.
C. Social communication deficit. Impaired social interaction and communication are core features of ASD. Affected individuals struggle with understanding social cues, making eye contact, interpreting facial expressions, and engaging in reciprocal conversations.
D. Receptive language dysfunction. While language delays can be present in ASD, receptive language dysfunction (difficulty understanding spoken language) is more characteristic of specific language impairment (SLI) or aphasia rather than ASD. In ASD, deficits in pragmatic (social) communication are more pronounced than in purely receptive language processing.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Aripiprazole (Abilify) is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic with a lower risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) due to its partial dopamine agonist mechanism. It has a lower incidence of tardive dyskinesia and dystonia compared to typical antipsychotics.
B. Clozapine (Clozaril) has the lowest risk of EPS among antipsychotics because it weakly blocks D2 receptors and primarily targets serotonin (5-HT2A) receptors. However, it carries a high risk of agranulocytosis, sedation, and metabolic syndrome.
C. Lurasidone (Latuda) is a second-generation antipsychotic with a moderate risk of EPS, particularly akathisia (restlessness). However, it has a lower risk than first-generation (typical) antipsychotics like haloperidol.
D. Haloperidol (Haldol) is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic with a high risk of EPS due to its strong dopamine (D2) receptor blockade. It is associated with dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia, making it the antipsychotic with the highest EPS risk in this list.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Clozapine (Clozaril) is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic known for its strong dopamine (D2) and serotonin (5-HT2A) blockade. It is primarily used for treatment-resistant schizophrenia but has a high risk of agranulocytosis, metabolic syndrome, and sedation, requiring regular blood monitoring.
B. Haloperidol (Haldol) is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic that strongly blocks dopamine (D2) receptors, leading to a high risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as dystonia, tardive dyskinesia, and akathisia. It is commonly used for acute psychosis and agitation.
C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin is a first-generation antipsychotic that also strongly antagonizes D2 receptors, making it effective for chronic schizophrenia but highly associated with EPS. It is available in long-acting injectable (LAI) form for maintenance therapy.
D. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is a first-generation, low-potency antipsychotic with strong sedative, anticholinergic, and hypotensive effects. While it has a lower risk of EPS compared to high-potency FGAs like haloperidol, it causes more sedation, orthostatic hypotension, and weight gain due to histamine and muscarinic receptor blockade.
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