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Which of the following medication needs to be taken with 350 calories of food?

A.

clozapine (Clozaril)

B.

aripiprazole (Abilify)

C.

lurasidone (Latuda)

D.

haloperidol (Haldol)

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Clozapine (Clozaril) does not require food for absorption, but it has a high risk of sedation, weight gain, and metabolic side effects. It also requires regular blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocytosis.

B. Aripiprazole (Abilify) can be taken with or without food, as food does not significantly affect its absorption. It is a partial dopamine agonist, associated with a lower risk of weight gain and metabolic issues compared to other atypical antipsychotics.

C. Lurasidone (Latuda) must be taken with at least 350 calories of food to ensure proper absorption. Taking it on an empty stomach reduces its bioavailability, making it less effective. It is considered a weight-neutral antipsychotic and has a lower risk of metabolic side effects.

D. Haloperidol (Haldol) does not require food for absorption. It is a first-generation antipsychotic (FGA) with a high risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) but minimal metabolic effects.


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Lurasidone (Latuda) is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic, not a third-generation antipsychotic. It primarily blocks dopamine (D2) and serotonin (5-HT2A) receptors and is used to treat schizophrenia and bipolar depression.

B. Cariprazine (Vraylar) is a third-generation antipsychotic, functioning as a partial dopamine (D2/D3) and serotonin (5-HT1A) receptor agonist. It is used for schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and major depressive disorder (MDD) adjunctive treatment.

C. Haloperidol (Haldol) is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic, not a third-generation antipsychotic. It works by strongly blocking D2 receptors, leading to a high risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) but lower metabolic side effects compared to atypical antipsychotics.

D. Aripiprazole (Abilify) is a third-generation antipsychotic, known for its partial dopamine (D2) agonist properties. It has a lower risk of EPS and metabolic side effects compared to second-generation antipsychotics and is used for schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and adjunctive treatment in depression.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Sudden onset of psychotic symptoms in less than a month. According to the DSM-5, brief psychotic disorder is characterized by a sudden onset of delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, or disorganized behavior that lasts at least one day but less than one month, with eventual full recovery.

B. Sudden onset of psychotic symptoms in less than two months. The DSM-5 criteria do not define brief psychotic disorder with a two-month duration. If symptoms persist beyond one month, another diagnosis, such as schizophreniform disorder, may be considered.

C. Sudden onset of psychotic symptoms in less than one year. Psychotic symptoms lasting up to one year are more indicative of schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder, not brief psychotic disorder.

D. Sudden onset of psychotic symptoms in less than six months. Psychotic symptoms lasting longer than one month but less than six months are consistent with schizophreniform disorder, rather than brief psychotic disorder.

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