Albumin 25% IV is prescribed for a child with nephrotic syndrome. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is having the desired effect?
Reduction of fever.
Weight gain.
Reduction of edema.
Improved caloric intake.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Reduction of fever is not the primary goal of albumin therapy. Albumin's role in nephrotic syndrome is to manage severe edema, not to reduce fever, which might be managed by antipyretics if present.
Choice B rationale
Weight gain is typically undesirable in nephrotic syndrome patients due to fluid retention and edema. Albumin therapy aims to reduce edema, potentially decreasing weight as fluid balance improves.
Choice C rationale
Albumin infusion helps reduce edema by increasing plasma oncotic pressure, drawing fluid back into the vascular system. A reduction in edema indicates the therapy’s effectiveness in managing nephrotic syndrome symptoms.
Choice D rationale
Improved caloric intake is not directly affected by albumin infusion. While managing edema might improve overall well-being, albumin’s primary function in this context is fluid balance and reducing swelling.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Covering the lesion with a dressing is not an appropriate action as it will not prevent the transmission of herpes to the newborn. Herpes simplex virus can be transmitted to the neonate during delivery, and covering the lesion does not eliminate the risk.
Choice B rationale
Blood cultures are not indicated for managing active herpes lesions in a client with spontaneous rupture of membranes. This action does not address the immediate risk of transmission of the virus to the newborn.
Choice C rationale
Preparing for a cesarean section is the appropriate action because it reduces the risk of neonatal herpes transmission. Neonatal herpes can lead to severe complications, and a cesarean section is recommended to minimize the risk of exposure to the virus during vaginal delivery.
Choice D rationale
Administering penicillin is not appropriate for treating herpes lesions. Penicillin is an antibiotic effective against bacterial infections, but herpes is caused by a virus. Antiviral medications are required to manage herpes infections.
Correct Answer is ["1500"]
Explanation
Step 1 is. (500 mL ÷ 20 min) × 60 min/hr = 1500 mL/hr. Answer: 1500 mL/hr.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.