After receiving large doses of chlorpromazine for two weeks, a client begins to develop spasms of the neck and back. Which action should the nurse take?

Determine if the client is taking an anticholinergic drug such as benztropine mesylate.

This is an expected side effect of chlorpromazine which requires no further action.

Call the healthcare provider and refuse to administer any more chlorpromazine.

Decrease the dose of chlorpromazine and notify the healthcare provider.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Spasms of the neck and back can be symptoms of acute dystonia, a side effect of antipsychotic medications like chlorpromazine. Anticholinergic drugs such as benztropine mesylate can help manage these symptoms.
B. Spasms are not an expected side effect of chlorpromazine and require intervention rather than acceptance.
C. Refusing to administer chlorpromazine without consulting the healthcare provider may be premature; the priority is to address the symptoms.
D. Decreasing the dose and notifying the healthcare provider may be necessary, but first, it’s essential to determine if anticholinergic medication is required to address the acute symptoms.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. While additional sleep may be helpful, it does not address the root cause of the hangover effect from temazepam.
B. A benzodiazepine antagonist is typically used in cases of overdose, not for managing next-day drowsiness.
C. Temazepam is a benzodiazepine, and sudden discontinuation can lead to withdrawal symptoms. The nurse should advise the client to taper off the medication gradually under medical supervision to prevent withdrawal symptoms and minimize the "hangover" effect.
D. Stopping the medication abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and is not recommended.

A. Urinary output for past six hours. B. 24-hour medication history. C. Amount of serous drainage from the wound. D. White blood cell count.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Urinary output is important but not as critical as identifying the potential source of infection.
B. A 24-hour medication history is useful but secondary to identifying an acute infection.
C. The amount of serous drainage provides information on wound healing but does not confirm infection.
D. Increased confusion in an older adult, especially with a wound present, raises concern for infection, possibly sepsis. A WBC count can help identify infection and guide further treatment.

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After receiving large doses of chlorpromazine for two weeks, a client begins to develop spasms of the neck and back. Which action should the nurse take?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client taking temazepam informs the nurse of plans to quit taking the medication due to feelings of "hungover" the next day. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

An older client who is experiencing urinary incontinence is brought to the clinic with increased confusion. The nurse observes serous drainage from a laceration on the client's left arm. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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