A severely dehydrated client has come in for rapid administration of IV fluids. Which of the following solutions is the best solution for rapid infusion?

Normal Saline

1/2 Normal Saline

D5W (5% Dextrose in Water)

D5 1/2 Normal Saline

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: This is a correct answer because normal saline is an isotonic solution, which means it has the same osmolarity as the blood plasma. It does not cause any fluid shifts between the intracellular and extracellular compartments, and it can help restore the fluid balance and the blood pressure of the dehydrated client.

Choice B reason: This is not a correct answer because 1/2 normal saline is a hypotonic solution, which means it has a lower osmolarity than the blood plasma. It causes fluid to shift from the extracellular to the intracellular compartment, which can lead to cellular swelling and edema. It is not suitable for rapid infusion, as it can cause hemolysis and hypotension.

Choice C reason: This is not a correct answer because D5W (5% Dextrose in Water) is an isotonic solution when it is in the IV bag, but it becomes hypotonic once it enters the body, as the dextrose is rapidly metabolized and only water remains. It causes fluid to shift from the extracellular to the intracellular compartment, which can lead to cellular swelling and edema. It is not suitable for rapid infusion, as it can cause hemolysis and hypotension.

Choice D reason: This is not a correct answer because D5 1/2 normal saline is a hypertonic solution, which means it has a higher osmolarity than the blood plasma. It causes fluid to shift from the intracellular to the extracellular compartment, which can lead to cellular shrinkage and dehydration. It is not suitable for rapid infusion, as it can cause hypernatremia and fluid overload.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: This is not a correct result that the nurse should anticipate. RBC stands for red blood cells, which carry oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood. The normal range for RBC is 4-5.5 /mm^3^, so a value of 4.2 /mm^3^ is within the normal range and does not indicate any abnormality.

Choice B reason: This is a correct result that the nurse should anticipate. WBC stands for white blood cells, which fight infections and inflammation in the body. The normal range for WBC is 5-10 /mm^3^, so a value of 17 /mm^3^ is above the normal range and indicates leukocytosis, which is an increase in the number of white blood cells. Leukocytosis can be caused by acute appendicitis, as the body tries to fight the infection and inflammation in the appendix.

Choice C reason: This is not a correct result that the nurse should anticipate. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that are the first to respond to bacterial infections. The normal range for neutrophils is 3-5.8 /mm^3^, so a value of 3.2 /mm^3^ is within the normal range and does not indicate any abnormality.

Choice D reason: This is not a correct result that the nurse should anticipate. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that are involved in the immune response and the production of antibodies. The normal range for lymphocytes is 1-4 /mm^3^, so a value of 3 /mm^3^ is within the normal range and does not indicate any abnormality.

A. Blanched abdomen B. Sudden decrease in abdominal pain C. Absent Rovsing's sign D. Fever

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: This is not a correct manifestation of appendiceal perforation. Blanched abdomen means that the skin of the abdomen is pale or white, which can indicate shock or blood loss. However, it is not a specific sign of appendiceal perforation, as it can occur in other conditions as well.

Choice B reason: This is a correct manifestation of appendiceal perforation. Sudden decrease in abdominal pain means that the pain that was previously felt in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen has subsided or disappeared. This can indicate that the appendix has ruptured and released the pus and bacteria into the peritoneal cavity, causing peritonitis. This is a serious complication that requires immediate surgical intervention.

Choice C reason: This is not a correct manifestation of appendiceal perforation. Absent Rovsing's sign means that there is no pain in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen when the left lower quadrant is palpated. This is a sign of appendicitis, not appendiceal perforation, as it indicates that the appendix is inflamed and irritated by the pressure.

Choice D reason: This is not a correct manifestation of appendiceal perforation. Fever means that the body temperature is above the normal range, which can indicate infection or inflammation. However, it is not a specific sign of appendiceal perforation, as it can occur in other conditions as well.

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A severely dehydrated client has come in for rapid administration of IV fluids. Which of the following solutions is the best solution for rapid infusion?

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Explanation

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