A school nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent about levonorgestrel contraception. Which of the following information should the nurse Include in the teaching?
"You should take the medication within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse."
"You should avoid taking this medication if you are on an oral contraceptive."
"If you don't start your period within 5 days of taking this medication, you will need a pregnancy test."
"One dose of this medication will prevent you from becoming pregnant for 14 days after taking it”
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason:
"You should take the medication within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse." This statement is accurate. Levonorgestrel is an emergency contraceptive that is effective when taken within 72 hours (3 days) after unprotected sexual intercourse. It is crucial to use it as soon as possible for optimal effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
Choice B Reason:
"You should avoid taking this medication if you are on an oral contraceptive." This statement is not accurate. Levonorgestrel can be used as emergency contraception, even if the individual is already on an oral contraceptive. However, it's essential to follow the healthcare provider's guidance.
Choice C Reason:
"If you don't start your period within 5 days of taking this medication, you will need a pregnancy test." This statement is not entirely accurate. While a delayed period may occur after taking levonorgestrel, it does not necessarily indicate pregnancy. If there are concerns about pregnancy, a pregnancy test should be taken a few weeks after using emergency contraception.
Choice D Reason:
"One dose of this medication will prevent you from becoming pregnant for 14 days after taking it." This statement is not accurate. Levonorgestrel is primarily effective in the prevention of pregnancy when taken shortly after unprotected intercourse. It does not provide ongoing protection, and additional contraceptive methods should be considered for future encounters.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is B. Position the client with one hip elevated.
A. Having the client void is a good practice, but it is not the priority action in this situation. The client's vital signs suggest a potential issue with uteroplacental perfusion, and repositioning the client should be the priority.
B. Positioning the client with one hip elevated is the priority action.
The vital signs, specifically the low blood pressure, may be indicative of aortocaval compression (supine hypotension). Elevating one hip helps alleviate this compression, improving blood flow and potentially addressing the decreased blood pressure.
C. Asking the client if she needs pain medication is important, but repositioning the client takes precedence due to the potential issue with blood pressure and uteroplacental perfusion.
D. Notifying the provider is important, but repositioning the client to improve blood flow should be done first. The provider may be notified afterward based on the client's response and ongoing assessment.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Frank breech position
A. In a frank breech presentation, the baby's buttocks are the presenting part. When the nurse locates fetal heart tones above the client's umbilicus at midline during active labor, it is indicative of a breech presentation, and the frank breech position is one possibility.
B. In a cephalic presentation, which is the most common and ideal position for childbirth, the fetal head is the presenting part, and the fetal heart tones would typically be heard below the umbilicus.
C. In a posterior position, the back of the baby's head is against the mother's spine. Fetal heart tones in this position would be typically heard below the umbilicus.
D. In a transverse lie, the baby is positioned horizontally across the uterus. Fetal heart tones may be heard laterally in this position, not necessarily above the umbilicus at midline.
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