A school nurse is informed that a student has recently been diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura. The nurse should identify that which of the following scheduled vaccines should be withheld?
Polio
Measles, mumps, and rubella virus
Diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis
Hepatitis B
The Correct Answer is B
A. Polio: The inactivated polio vaccine does not contain live virus and does not increase bleeding risk in clients with thrombocytopenia. It is generally considered safe to administer and does not worsen platelet destruction. Routine immunization schedules can usually be continued with this vaccine.
B. Measles, mumps, and rubella virus: The MMR vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine and is associated with the development or worsening of thrombocytopenia. In a client with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, this vaccine should be withheld due to the risk of further platelet reduction and bleeding complications. Careful timing or deferral is recommended until platelet counts stabilize.
C. Diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis: This vaccine is inactivated and does not pose a risk of viral replication or immune-mediated platelet destruction. While injection technique may need to be adjusted to reduce bleeding risk, the vaccine itself is not contraindicated.
D. Hepatitis B: Hepatitis B vaccine is non-live and safe for clients with thrombocytopenia. Although intramuscular injections can increase the risk of localized bleeding, the vaccine itself does not exacerbate ITP. Applying firm pressure after injection helps minimize bruising or hematoma formation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","D","E","F","G"]
Explanation
A. Respiratory data: The client’s respirations are even and nonlabored, with clear lung sounds and an oxygen saturation of 94% on room air. Although the respiratory rate is mildly elevated, there are no signs of pulmonary edema or respiratory compromise requiring immediate follow-up.
B. Lower extremity data: The presence of 1+ dependent edema bilaterally can be a normal finding in pregnancy due to increased fluid volume and venous stasis. In isolation, this level of edema does not indicate a critical concern requiring urgent follow-up.
C. Nausea: Nausea and vomiting in the third trimester, especially when accompanied by headache and right epigastric pain, are concerning for severe preeclampsia. These symptoms suggest hepatic involvement and warrant prompt follow-up and evaluation.
D. Deep tendon reflex: Hyperreflexia with 3+ deep tendon reflexes indicates increased neuromuscular irritability. This finding is associated with preeclampsia and increases the risk for seizure activity, making it a priority for follow-up.
E. Blood pressure: A blood pressure of 156/96 mm Hg meets the criteria for hypertension in pregnancy. Persistent elevations place the client at risk for preeclampsia and related complications and require immediate provider notification.
F. Fundal height: At 30 weeks’ gestation, an expected fundal height is approximately 30 cm. A measurement of 26 cm suggests possible intrauterine growth restriction, which may be related to placental insufficiency and requires further assessment.
G. Weight data: A weight gain of 0.68 kg (1.5 lb) in one week may indicate abnormal fluid retention. Rapid weight gain in pregnancy is a concerning sign of worsening preeclampsia and should be followed up promptly.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The client has state-sponsored health insurance: Information about insurance coverage is important for discharge planning but is not typically the focus of an interprofessional team meeting. This detail is usually managed by case management or social services rather than guiding immediate clinical decision-making.
B. The client's vital signs are checked every 8 hr: The frequency of routine vital sign monitoring is a standard nursing task and does not provide meaningful insight into the client’s current functional or clinical status. Interprofessional discussions focus more on changes or problems rather than routine care schedules.
C. The client's next dressing change is scheduled in 4 hr: While wound care timing is important for nursing care, it does not require interprofessional input unless complications or barriers exist. This information is task-oriented rather than problem-focused and is better documented in the nursing plan of care.
D. The client has developed difficulty ambulating: New difficulty with ambulation represents a change in functional status that impacts safety, mobility, and discharge planning. This information is highly relevant to the interprofessional team, including physical therapy, occupational therapy, and providers. Sharing this promotes coordinated interventions and appropriate referrals.
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