A patient with new third-degree burns over 60% of the body is confused and presents with a blood pressure of 79/56 mm Hg, heart rate of 132 beats/min, and respirations of 28 breaths/min with crackles on auscultation.
The patient’s body temperature is 76° F, and the skin is pale and clammy. Which stage of shock is this patient experiencing?

Irreversible.

End-organ dysfunction.

Early reversible.

Preshock.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale:

Irreversible shock is the final stage of shock, where the body's compensatory mechanisms have failed, and damage to vital organs is irreversible. This stage is characterized by:

Profound hypotension (systolic blood pressure persistently below 60 mmHg) Severely altered mental status (unresponsiveness or coma)

Widespread organ failure (kidney failure, liver failure, respiratory failure) Lack of response to aggressive fluid resuscitation and vasopressor therapy

The patient in the question does not exhibit all of these signs and symptoms, particularly the profound hypotension and irreversible organ failure. Therefore, irreversible shock is not the most likely stage.

Choice B rationale:

End-organ dysfunction is a stage of shock where inadequate tissue perfusion has begun to cause damage to vital organs. This stage is characterized by:

Hypotension that may respond to fluid resuscitation

Signs of organ dysfunction, such as decreased urine output, altered mental status, or respiratory distress

The patient in the question does have some signs of organ dysfunction, such as confusion and crackles on lung auscultation. However, the hypotension is not as severe as typically seen in end-organ dysfunction shock, and there is no mention of other organ dysfunction like decreased urine output. Therefore, end-organ dysfunction is not the most likely stage.

Choice C rationale:

Early reversible shock is the initial stage of shock, where the body's compensatory mechanisms are still able to maintain blood pressure and organ perfusion. This stage is characterized by:

Mild to moderate hypotension Tachycardia

Cool, clammy skin Narrowed pulse pressure Restlessness or anxiety

The patient in the question presents with all of these signs and symptoms, making early reversible shock the most likely stage.

Choice D rationale:

Preshock is a state of impending shock, where the body's compensatory mechanisms are activated but not yet fully effective. This stage is characterized by:

Normal or slightly low blood pressure Tachycardia

Cool, clammy skin Restlessness or anxiety

The patient in the question has hypotension, which is not consistent with preshock. Therefore, preshock is not the correct stage.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

A colostomy is a surgical opening in the abdomen that allows stool to pass through the colon and out of the body. While a colostomy may increase the risk of certain complications, such as dehydration and skin irritation, it does not directly increase the risk of aspiration. This is because the colostomy bypasses the upper digestive tract, where aspiration typically occurs.

Choice B rationale:

An ileostomy is a similar surgical opening in the abdomen, but it diverts the small intestine rather than the colon. Like a colostomy, an ileostomy does not directly increase the risk of aspiration. However, it may lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, which could indirectly contribute to aspiration risk.

Choice C rationale:

Enteral feedings through an NG tube are a common way to provide nutrition to patients who cannot eat by mouth. However, these feedings can also increase the risk of aspiration. This is because the NG tube bypasses the normal swallowing mechanisms, which help to protect the airway. If the feeding tube is not properly positioned or if the patient has impaired gastric motility, formula could enter the lungs and cause aspiration pneumonia.

Choice D rationale:

A chest tube is a drainage tube that is inserted into the chest cavity to remove air or fluid. While a chest tube may cause some discomfort and respiratory issues, it does not directly increase the risk of aspiration.

A. “The last time I voided it was painful.” B. “I haven’t had anything to eat or drink since last night.” C. “I took a laxative yesterday.” D. “I took my metformin before breakfast.”

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Painful urination (dysuria) can be a sign of several conditions that could potentially affect the client's IVP or indicate a need for further assessment. These conditions include:

Urinary tract infection (UTI): UTIs are common in clients with recurrent kidney stones, and they can cause inflammation and pain in the urinary tract. If a client has a UTI, it's important to treat it before the IVP to reduce the risk of spreading the infection to the kidneys.

Kidney stone passage: The client's history of kidney stones makes it possible that the pain could be due to the passage of a stone. This would be important information for the healthcare team to know, as it could affect the interpretation of the IVP results.

Other urological conditions: There are other urological conditions, such as bladder or urethral strictures, that can also cause painful urination. These conditions might also need to be considered and assessed for.

It's important for the nurse to collect more data about the client's painful urination to determine the underlying cause and whether it could impact the IVP. This might include asking questions about:

The severity and duration of the pain

Any other associated symptoms, such as fever, urgency, or frequency The client's history of UTIs or kidney stones

Any recent changes in urinary habits

Based on this additional information, the nurse can then collaborate with the healthcare team to determine the best course of action, which might include:

Further assessment, such as a urinalysis or urine culture Treatment for a UTI, if present

Pain management

Rescheduling the IVP, if necessary

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a group of patients on an adult medical-surgical unit.Which patient should the nurse identify as having the highest risk for aspiration?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has recurrent kidney stones and a history of diabetes mellitus.The client is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). What statements made by the client should the nurse collect additional data about?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is developing a care plan for a patient with pneumonia who requires chest percussion, vibration, and postural drainage. What should the nurse plan to do first?

A nurse enters a client’s room to answer the call light and finds the client on the bathroom floor. What should be the nurse’s initial action?

A nurse is collecting data from a client following removal of the client’s endotracheal tube. What findings should the nurse report to the provider?

A nurse is providing postoperative care for a patient who has a closed-wound drainage system. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform?

A nurse is caring for a patient who is postoperative following a total knee replacement. What action should the nurse take to prevent deep vein thrombophlebitis?

A medical surgical unit has implemented a policy change.The nurse manager has noticed that one of the nurses, who has a history of being resistant to change, is not delivering care according to the new policy.What actions should the nurse manager take?

A nurse is analyzing the arterial blood gas (ABG) results of a patient.The patient’s ABGs are: pH:7.6, PaCO2:40 mm Hg, HCO3:32 mEq/L. Which of the following acid-base conditions should the nurse identify the patient is experiencing?

A nurse is caring for a patient who is postoperative and receiving fentanyl via patient-controlled analgesia. The patient has a prescription for naloxone. What is the purpose of naloxone?