A patient with congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema is experiencing chest pain.
The patient has been prescribed morphine sulfate IV 4 mg every 5-30 minutes as needed until chest pain subsides.
The last dose of 4 mg was administered 15 minutes ago, and the patient is still complaining of chest pain and showing signs of increased respiratory effort.
The nurse observes a heart rate of 82 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 135/88 mm Hg. What should the nurse do next?
Request an order for morphine sulfate IV 2 mg over 1-5 minutes.
Withhold the next dose and inform the provider about the patient’s symptoms.
Administer naloxone (Narcan) to counteract respiratory depression.
Administer morphine sulfate IV 4 mg over 1-5 minutes.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Requesting an order for morphine sulfate IV 2 mg over 1-5 minutes would not be appropriate at this time for several reasons: The patient has already received a dose of 4 mg 15 minutes ago, and it has not been effective in relieving the chest pain.
The patient is showing signs of increased respiratory effort, which could be a sign of respiratory depression. Administering an additional dose of morphine could worsen the respiratory depression.
The patient's heart rate is 82 beats per minute, which is within the normal range.
The patient's blood pressure is 135/88 mm Hg, which is also within the normal range.
Choice C rationale:
Administering naloxone (Narcan) to counteract respiratory depression would not be appropriate at this time because the patient is not showing signs of severe respiratory depression. Naloxone is a medication that is used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. It is typically only used in situations where the patient is experiencing life-threatening respiratory depression.
Choice D rationale:
Administering morphine sulfate IV 4 mg over 1-5 minutes would not be appropriate for the reasons listed above. It could worsen the patient's respiratory depression and potentially lead to other complications.
Choice B is the best answer because it is the most conservative and safest option. By withholding the next dose of morphine and informing the provider about the patient's symptoms, the nurse can ensure that the patient receives the appropriate care and that any potential complications are avoided.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Regular insulin peaks within 2-4 hours after administration. Therefore, to prevent hypoglycemia due to the insulin administered at 0700, the client should eat breakfast within 1-2 hours of insulin administration. This will ensure that there is glucose available in the bloodstream to match the insulin's action and prevent blood sugar levels from dropping too low.
Breakfast is the most important meal of the day, especially for individuals with diabetes. It helps to regulate blood sugar levels throughout the morning and can even help with weight management and overall health.
Skipping breakfast can lead to fluctuations in blood sugar levels and increase the risk of hypoglycemia, especially after insulin administration.
Choice B rationale:
Supper, typically consumed in the evening, would not be timely enough to prevent hypoglycemia due to the 0700 insulin administration. The insulin's peak action would have already subsided by that time, and the client would be at risk for hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) instead.
Choice C rationale:
Lunch, typically consumed around noon, would also be too late to prevent hypoglycemia from the 0700 insulin administration. The insulin's peak action would have already passed, and the client would be more likely to experience hyperglycemia.
Choice D rationale:
A snack, while it can provide some glucose, is not a substitute for a balanced meal like breakfast. Snacks often contain less protein and fiber, which are essential for slowing down glucose absorption and maintaining blood sugar stability. Relying solely on snacks to prevent hypoglycemia is not a reliable strategy for long-term blood sugar management.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Severe acidemia: A pH of 6.9 indicates severe acidemia, a condition where the blood is too acidic. Sodium bicarbonate is an alkalizing agent that can help raise the blood pH back to a normal range.
Rapid correction: Intravenous (IVP) administration of sodium bicarbonate allows for rapid correction of acidemia, which is crucial in severe cases to prevent life-threatening complications.
Buffering action: Sodium bicarbonate acts as a buffer, accepting excess hydrogen ions (H+) in the blood and converting them into water and carbon dioxide (CO2), which can be exhaled.
Specific indications: Sodium bicarbonate is typically used in cases of severe acidemia caused by metabolic acidosis, such as diabetic ketoacidosis or lactic acidosis. It may also be considered in cases of respiratory acidosis, but other interventions like ventilatory support are often prioritized.
Choice B rationale:
Calcium carbonate is not a direct treatment for acidemia: It is primarily used as an antacid to neutralize stomach acid and as a calcium supplement for bone health. While it can have a mild alkalizing effect, it is not as effective as sodium bicarbonate in rapidly correcting severe acidemia.
Choice C rationale:
Alkalemia: A pH of 7.6 indicates alkalemia, a condition where the blood is too alkaline. Administration of sodium bicarbonate in this situation would worsen the alkalemia and potentially lead to serious complications.
Choice D rationale:
Hyponatremia: Low serum sodium levels do not directly require treatment with sodium bicarbonate. Sodium bicarbonate is primarily used to address acid-base imbalances, not electrolyte imbalances.
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