A patient with angina has been given 0.4 mg of nitroglycerin SL and reports continued chest pain 5 minutes later.
The nurse assesses a heart rate of 84 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 88/68 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take next?
Administer 0.4 mg of nitroglycerin SL.
Notify the provider of the patient’s vital signs.
Give nitroglycerin by translingual spray.
Administer 10 units NPH insulin.
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale for Choice A:
Repeating the dose of nitroglycerin SL is not recommended at this time due to the patient's hypotension (blood pressure of 88/68 mmHg).
Administering additional nitroglycerin could further lower the blood pressure, potentially leading to adverse consequences such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or even fainting.
It's crucial to prioritize patient safety and avoid actions that could exacerbate their condition. Rationale for Choice B:
Notifying the provider is the most appropriate action in this situation for several reasons:
The patient's chest pain has not been relieved by the initial dose of nitroglycerin, indicating a need for further evaluation and potential adjustments to the treatment plan.
The patient's blood pressure is low, which warrants close monitoring and possible intervention to prevent complications.
The provider can assess the patient's overall clinical picture, including other symptoms and medical history, to determine the best course of action.
Early notification allows for timely interventions and potential prevention of further complications. Rationale for Choice C:
While nitroglycerin by translingual spray may be considered in some cases of persistent angina, it's not the most appropriate choice in this situation due to the patient's hypotension.
The translingual spray can also have a rapid onset of action, which might further lower the blood pressure if not carefully monitored.
It's essential to consider the patient's overall hemodynamic status before administering any medication that could potentially affect blood pressure.
Rationale for Choice D:
Administering NPH insulin is not relevant to the management of angina or chest pain.
Insulin is used to treat hyperglycemia in patients with diabetes, and its administration would not address the underlying issue of the patient's chest pain.
It's important to select interventions that are directly targeted at the patient's presenting symptoms and condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hypoglycemia is a critical consideration: The patient's symptoms of lethargy, diaphoresis, and combativeness, along with recent insulin administration, raise a strong suspicion of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar). Hypoglycemia can quickly progress to coma and seizures if not promptly treated, making it a high priority to assess and address.
Bedside glucose testing is rapid and reliable: A bedside finger stick blood glucose test is a quick, non-invasive, and accurate way to determine the patient's blood sugar level. It provides immediate results, allowing for prompt intervention if hypoglycemia is confirmed.
Other assessments and interventions can follow: Once hypoglycemia is ruled out or confirmed, the nurse can proceed with other assessments and interventions as needed.
Choice B rationale:
Insulin administration without blood sugar confirmation is dangerous: Administering insulin without first checking the patient's blood sugar could worsen hypoglycemia if it is already present. This could lead to severe complications, including neurological damage or even death.
Insulin timing is not a priority: While the next dose of insulin may be due, its administration is not the most urgent priority in this situation. Addressing the patient's immediate symptoms and potential hypoglycemia takes precedence.
Choice C rationale:
Naloxone is not indicated for hypoglycemia: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose. It has no effect on hypoglycemia and would not be appropriate in this case.
Choice D rationale:
Oxygen therapy may not address the underlying issue: While oxygen therapy can be beneficial for patients with respiratory distress, it does not address the potential hypoglycemia in this case. If the patient's lethargy and combativeness are due to low blood sugar, oxygen therapy alone would not be sufficient treatment.
Oxygen saturation is already within normal limits: The patient's oxygen saturation (SPO2) is 97%, indicating that their oxygenation is currently adequate. Oxygen therapy would not be indicated unless there were signs of hypoxia.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Increasing the amiodarone infusion rate would worsen the patient's bradycardia and hypotension. Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic drug that works by prolonging the action potential duration in cardiac cells. This can lead to a decrease in heart rate and contractility.
Increasing the dose in this patient could lead to further hemodynamic compromise.
Choice B rationale:
Decreasing the amiodarone infusion rate is the most appropriate action in this situation. This will help to mitigate the drug's effects on the patient's heart rate and blood pressure.
A dose reduction may allow the heart rate to recover to a safer level while still maintaining the antiarrhythmic benefits of amiodarone.
Choice C rationale:
Continuing the amiodarone infusion at the current rate is not appropriate, as it is likely to worsen the patient's bradycardia and hypotension.
Maintaining the current dose could lead to further clinical deterioration.
Choice D rationale:
Discontinuing the amiodarone infusion entirely may not be necessary at this point. The patient's arrhythmia may still require treatment with amiodarone.
A dose reduction may be sufficient to address the patient's hemodynamic instability while still providing therapeutic benefits.
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