A patient with a history of chronic alcohol abuse has been admitted to the unit with cirrhosis. Upon review of the patient's laboratory test results, the nurse notes that the patient's ammonia level is elevated at 218 mcg/dL. What medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
Lactulose
Polyethylene glycol (MiraLax)
0.9% NS
Docusate sodium (Colace)
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason:
Lactulose is the medication of choice for treating elevated ammonia levels, commonly seen in hepatic encephalopathy associated with cirrhosis. It works by reducing the absorption of ammonia from the intestines, converting ammonia to ammonium, which is then excreted. Administering lactulose helps in lowering blood ammonia levels and improving mental status in affected patients.
Choice B reason:
Polyethylene glycol (MiraLax) is a laxative used to treat constipation. It does not have any role in reducing ammonia levels or treating hepatic encephalopathy. Therefore, it is not appropriate for this patient's elevated ammonia condition.
Choice C reason:
0.9% NS (normal saline) is primarily used for fluid resuscitation and electrolyte balance. While essential in managing cirrhotic patients with fluid imbalances, it does not address the elevated ammonia levels directly. Therefore, it is not the treatment of choice for this specific situation.
Choice D reason:
Docusate sodium (Colace) is a stool softener used to treat constipation. It does not have any effect on ammonia levels or the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy. Thus, it is not appropriate for managing elevated ammonia in this patient.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
The onset of warfarin is delayed, meaning it takes longer to achieve a therapeutic effect. Warfarin requires several days to adjust to effective anticoagulation levels because it works by inhibiting the synthesis of clotting factors that are already present and active in the bloodstream. In contrast, heparin has an immediate anticoagulant effect when administered, which is crucial for patients with acute conditions like deep vein thrombosis.
Choice B reason:
Warfarin does not prevent platelet aggregation. Instead, it works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which are essential for blood coagulation. Platelet aggregation is primarily inhibited by antiplatelet drugs like aspirin or clopidogrel, not anticoagulants like warfarin.
Choice C reason:
Heparin does not necessarily have fewer adverse effects compared to warfarin. Both anticoagulants have their specific risks and side effects. Heparin is preferred in acute settings due to its rapid onset of action, but it can cause complications like heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), which requires careful monitoring.
Choice D reason:
Heparin does not have a longer half-life than warfarin. In fact, heparin's half-life is relatively short, which is why it is often administered via continuous infusion or frequent subcutaneous injections. Warfarin has a longer half-life, but its delayed onset of action makes it less suitable for immediate anticoagulation needs.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Using a different antifungal agent might be necessary due to the potential interaction between voriconazole and warfarin. Voriconazole can increase the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, selecting an alternative antifungal that does not interact with warfarin could be the safest option for the patient.
Choice B reason:
Reducing the dose of voriconazole may not adequately address the drug interaction issue. Voriconazole can significantly affect warfarin metabolism even at lower doses, leading to potential complications. Therefore, this choice is less likely to be recommended.
Choice C reason:
Administering intravenous voriconazole does not change its interaction with warfarin. The method of administration does not alter the drug's effect on warfarin metabolism, making this option inappropriate for managing the drug interaction.
Choice D reason:
Increasing the dose of warfarin is not a viable option as voriconazole increases warfarin's anticoagulant effect. This would further elevate the risk of bleeding and is not recommended. Thus, this option is incorrect.
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