A patient taking temazepam informs you, the nurse, of plans to quit taking the medication due to feelings of being “hungover” the next day.
What action should you implement?
Instruct the patient that it is important to reduce the dose of the medication gradually.
Advise the patient to stop taking the medication immediately.
Encourage the patient to obtain a prescription for a benzodiazepine antagonist.
Discuss with the patient that there may be a need for additional sleep if the feeling of fatigue is present the next day.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Instructing the patient that it is important to reduce the dose of the medication gradually is the best course of action. Temazepam is a benzodiazepine, and abrupt discontinuation can lead to withdrawal symptoms, which can be severe and include seizures. Therefore, it’s crucial to taper off the medication under the supervision of a healthcare provider.
Choice B rationale
Advising the patient to stop taking the medication immediately is not recommended due to the risk of withdrawal symptoms.
Choice C rationale
Encouraging the patient to obtain a prescription for a benzodiazepine antagonist is not typically the first line of action when discontinuing temazepam.
Choice D rationale
Discussing with the patient that there may be a need for additional sleep if the feeling of fatigue is present the next day is not directly addressing the issue. The patient’s feelings of being “hungover” are likely due to the effects of the medication, not a lack of sleep.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is A. The nurse should first implement the prescription of Cefazolin 1 gram intravenously every 6 hours.
This is because, on admission of a patient to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) from surgery, the first priority is to assess the airway and breathing status. Administering Cefazolin, an antibiotic, helps prevent postoperative infections, which is crucial in the immediate postoperative period.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg is not typically considered a risk for patients receiving eptifibatide. While eptifibatide can cause hypotension, a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg is within normal limits.
Choice B rationale
The presence of hematemesis, or vomiting blood, poses the greatest risk to the patient. Eptifibatide is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor that prevents platelets from clumping together by blocking the action of certain proteins. This can increase the risk of bleeding, including gastrointestinal bleeding, which could manifest as hematemesis.
Choice C rationale
Incontinence with blood in the urine could indicate a urinary tract infection or other urinary system issue, but it is not typically associated with the use of eptifibatide.
Choice D rationale
Unresponsiveness to painful stimuli is a serious symptom that could indicate a number of issues, including neurological damage or severe illness. However, it is not typically associated with the use of eptifibatide.
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