A patient recovering from surgery has an indwelling urinary catheter. For which 24-hour urine output volumes should the nurse notify the patient's healthcare provider?
1000 milliliters.
600 milliliters.
1200 milliliters.
750 milliliters.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is B. 600 milliliters.
Choice A rationale:
A 24-hour urine output of 1000 milliliters is within the normal range for an adult, indicating adequate kidney function and hydration.
Choice B rationale:
A 24-hour urine output of 600 milliliters is below the normal range (typically 800-2000 milliliters), which may indicate oliguria (reduced urine output) and could be a sign of renal impairment or dehydration. This warrants notifying the healthcare provider.
Choice C rationale:
A 24-hour urine output of 1200 milliliters is also within the normal range, suggesting normal kidney function and hydration status.
Choice D rationale:
A 24-hour urine output of 750 milliliters is slightly below the normal range but may not be immediately concerning unless accompanied by other symptoms. However, it is still important to monitor and possibly notify the healthcare provider if it persists.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
The correct answer is choices A, B, and D. Here are the rationales for each choice:
Choice A rationale:
Sweet potatoes are an excellent source of potassium. One medium sweet potato contains about 542 mg of potassium, making it a great option for a high-potassium diet.
Choice B rationale:
Bananas are well-known for their high potassium content. A medium banana provides approximately 451 mg of potassium, which is beneficial for maintaining proper muscle and nerve function.
Choice C rationale:
Grapes are not particularly high in potassium compared to other fruits. They contain some potassium, but not enough to be considered a significant source for a high-potassium diet.
Choice D rationale:
Watermelon is a good source of potassium. Two wedges of watermelon contain about 640 mg of potassium, making it a suitable choice for increasing potassium intake.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D: Reduction of T-wave amplitude.
Choice A rationale:
The amplitude of the QRS complex is not directly affected by changes in serum potassium levels. It represents ventricular depolarization, and its restoration would not be an expected outcome of polystyrene sulfonate treatment
Choice B rationale:
Shortening of the P-wave duration is not an expected change with polystyrene sulfonate treatment. The P-wave represents atrial depolarization, which is not significantly impacted by the administration of this medication
Choice C rationale:
Widening of the QRS complex is associated with high serum potassium levels. The goal of polystyrene sulfonate treatment is to lower potassium levels and, thus, return the QRS complex to its normal width
Choice D rationale:
Polystyrene sulfonate aims to reduce serum potassium levels. When effective, this should result in a reduction of T-wave amplitude, which is a common ECG change seen with hyperkalemia
In conclusion, choice D is the correct answer, as a reduction in T-wave amplitude would be the expected change on the client's ECG if polystyrene sulfonate effectively lowers their serum potassium level.
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