A patient is in an urgent care center with an acute asthma attack. The nurse expects which medication will be used for initial treatment.
A long-acting beta2 agonist such as salmeterol (Serevent)
A short-acting (rapid-acting) beta2 agonist such as Albuterol (Proventil)
A corticosteroid such as fluticasone (Flovent)
An anticholinergic such as ipratropium (Atrovent)
The Correct Answer is B
During an acute asthma attack, the airways become narrowed and inflamed, leading to symptoms such as wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness. Short-acting beta2 agonists like Albuterol are the first-line medication for relieving acute asthma symptoms. They work by quickly relaxing the smooth muscles in the airways, resulting in bronchodilation and improved airflow. Albuterol provides rapid relief of symptoms and is often administered via inhalation.
A. Long-acting beta2 agonists (e.g., salmeterol) are typically used as maintenance therapy for long-term control of asthma symptoms, rather than for immediate relief during an acute attack.
C. Corticosteroids (e.g., fluticasone) are anti-inflammatory medications that are often prescribed for asthma, but they are more commonly used as part of a long-term management plan and may not provide immediate relief during an acute attack.
D. Anticholinergics (e.g., ipratropium) are sometimes used in combination with short-acting beta2 agonists for acute asthma exacerbations, but they are not typically the initial treatment choice for an acute asthma attack.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Traditional antihistamines like diphenhydramine are known to have sedating properties, which can cause drowsiness and impair cognitive function. On the other hand, loratadine is classified as a non-sedating or second-generation antihistamine. It is designed to have less of a sedative effect, allowing individuals to take it during the day without experiencing significant drowsiness or impairment.
It is important to note that individual responses to medications can vary, and some individuals may still experience mild drowsiness with loratadine. However, compared to diphenhydramine, loratadine is generally associated with a lower risk of sedation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
White coating in the mouth: A white coating in the mouth could be a sign of a fungal infection such as oral thrush. Fluticasone, which is a corticosteroid, can increase the risk of developing fungal infections. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to report any signs of oral thrush or other unusual changes in the mouth, such as white patches or discomfort, to the provider.
Prompt identification and treatment of oral thrush are necessary to prevent its progression and ensure effective management of the client's condition.
Dry oral mucous membranes: Dry oral mucous membranes are not typically associated with fluticasone/salmeterol use. However, if the client experiences persistent or severe dryness in the mouth or any other unusual oral symptoms, it should be reported to the provider. Dry mouth can sometimes occur as a side effect of medications or indicate other underlying issues that need to be addressed.
Sedation: Sedation is not a common side effect of fluticasone/salmeterol. If the client experiences excessive drowsiness or sedation that interferes with their daily activities, it may be important to report this to the provider. While sedation is not a typical adverse effect of this medication, individual responses can vary, and it is essential to ensure appropriate monitoring and management.
Increased appetite is not typically associated with fluticasone/salmeterol use. It is not a commonly reported adverse effect of the medication. However, if the client experiences significant and unexplained changes in appetite that are concerning or persistent, it may be worth mentioning to the provider during a follow-up appointment or as part of ongoing monitoring.
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