A patient is in an urgent care center with an acute asthma attack. The nurse expects which medication will be used for initial treatment.
A long-acting beta2 agonist such as salmeterol (Serevent)
A short-acting (rapid-acting) beta2 agonist such as Albuterol (Proventil)
A corticosteroid such as fluticasone (Flovent)
An anticholinergic such as ipratropium (Atrovent)
The Correct Answer is B
During an acute asthma attack, the airways become narrowed and inflamed, leading to symptoms such as wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness. Short-acting beta2 agonists like Albuterol are the first-line medication for relieving acute asthma symptoms. They work by quickly relaxing the smooth muscles in the airways, resulting in bronchodilation and improved airflow. Albuterol provides rapid relief of symptoms and is often administered via inhalation.
A. Long-acting beta2 agonists (e.g., salmeterol) are typically used as maintenance therapy for long-term control of asthma symptoms, rather than for immediate relief during an acute attack.
C. Corticosteroids (e.g., fluticasone) are anti-inflammatory medications that are often prescribed for asthma, but they are more commonly used as part of a long-term management plan and may not provide immediate relief during an acute attack.
D. Anticholinergics (e.g., ipratropium) are sometimes used in combination with short-acting beta2 agonists for acute asthma exacerbations, but they are not typically the initial treatment choice for an acute asthma attack.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This response demonstrates that the patient understands the dosing frequency (twice a day) and the importance of taking it with a full glass of water, which aligns with the instructions provided by the nurse.
The other choices are incorrect because:
A. "Taking this medication can cause me to develop a non-productive cough.": This response is about a potential side effect of the medication, rather than showing an understanding of the dosing instructions.
B. "I will take my medication Daily with a full glass of water.": This response indicates a misunderstanding of the dosing frequency, as the prescription specifically states "BID" (twice a day) rather than "daily."
D. "The medication will have to be given by my Home Health Nurse twice a day.": This response suggests a reliance on the home health nurse to administer the medication, which contradicts the instructions for the patient to take it themselves. It shows a misunderstanding of the patient's responsibility in self-administering the medication.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The nurse will tell the patient that second-generation antihistamines are generally considered safer than first-generation antihistamines during pregnancy. While the safety of medications during pregnancy is a complex topic and individualized recommendations should be obtained from a healthcare provider, second-generation antihistamines such as loratadine (Claritin) and cetirizine (Zyrtec) are often preferred over first-generation antihistamines like diphenhydramine (Benadryl) due to their lower potential for sedation and other side effects. However, it is still important for the patient to consult with her healthcare provider for personalized advice on medication use during pregnancy.
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