A patient is experiencing status epileptics. The nurse anticipates immediate administration of which drug?
Diazepam
Phenobarbital
Valproic acid
Phenytoin
The Correct Answer is A
A) Diazepam
Diazepam (a benzodiazepine) is the first-line treatment for status epilepticus, especially in emergency situations. It works by quickly calming overactive electrical activity in the brain and can be administered intravenously for rapid effect. Diazepam is commonly given as an initial treatment due to its fast onset of action in stopping seizures.
B) Phenobarbital
Phenobarbital is an anticonvulsant that can also be used for seizures, but it is typically used in cases where seizures persist after initial treatment, or as a long-term maintenance therapy. It is not the first-line drug for status epilepticus and is typically administered after other options like diazepam have been tried.
C) Valproic acid
Valproic acid is an anticonvulsant used for chronic seizure management (like for generalized seizures and some focal seizures), but it is not typically used as the immediate treatment in status epilepticus. It may be used in the long-term management or when other drugs fail, but diazepam or lorazepam are preferred for immediate control of seizures.
D) Phenytoin
Phenytoin is another commonly used anticonvulsant, but it has a slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam. While phenytoin is often used for long-term seizure prevention, it is not the most immediate choice in an emergency setting. After initial seizure control with a benzodiazepine, phenytoin may be given for continued seizure prevention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Bradycardia
Bradycardia (a slow heart rate) is not the most common response to nitroglycerin (NTG). While NTG can affect heart rate in some individuals, its primary action is related to blood vessels, and it typically leads to vasodilation, which more commonly results in reflex tachycardia (an increased heart rate), rather than bradycardia.
B) Tachycardia
Tachycardia (an increased heart rate) can occur as a compensatory mechanism when nitroglycerin causes vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure. However, this is more of a secondary effect. The primary action of nitroglycerin is to lower blood pressure (by dilating blood vessels), and in response to the lowered blood pressure, the body may try to compensate by increasing the heart rate.
C) Hypotension
The most common and primary response to nitroglycerin (NTG) administration is hypotension. Nitroglycerin works by relaxing smooth muscle in blood vessels, leading to vasodilation (widening of blood vessels). This reduces the amount of work the heart has to do and lowers the overall blood pressure. Hypotension is expected as part of the therapeutic effect of NTG, especially with a larger dose or rapid administration (e.g., sublingual NTG).
D) Dry mouth
While many medications can cause dry mouth (especially anticholinergic drugs), nitroglycerin is not typically associated with this issue. Its primary action is vasodilation, and while it can cause other symptoms like headaches, dizziness, and hypotension, dry mouth is not considered a common or significant effect.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The order directly states that the infusion rate is 30 mL/hr.
The information about the amount of Lidocaine (2 g) and the volume of D5W (250 mL) is irrelevant to determining the flow rate in this case.
The flow rate is already specified as 30 mL/hr in the order.
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