A patient in the emergency department with sudden-onset right-sided weakness is diagnosed with an intracerebral hemorrhage. Which information about the patient is most important to communicate to the health care provider?
The patient's blood pressure (BP) is 144/90 mm Hg.
The patient takes a diuretic because of a history of hypertension.
The patient has atrial fibrillation and takes warfarin (Coumadin).
The patient's speech is difficult to understand.
The Correct Answer is C
A. The patient's blood pressure (BP) is 144/90 mm Hg: While elevated blood pressure may contribute to the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage, the patient's current BP is not excessively high and may not be the most critical factor in this situation compared to other factors such as anticoagulant use.
B. The patient takes a diuretic because of a history of hypertension: While the patient's history of hypertension and diuretic use are relevant to their overall health status, they may not be the most immediate concern in the context of intracerebral hemorrhage.
C. The patient has atrial fibrillation and takes warfarin (Coumadin): This information is crucial as it indicates that the patient is anticoagulated, which can significantly impact the severity and management of intracerebral hemorrhage. Anticoagulant use increases the risk of bleeding and can worsen outcomes in cases of intracranial hemorrhage.
D. The patient's speech is difficult to understand: While difficulty with speech may indicate neurological impairment, it is not as immediately concerning as the patient's anticoagulant use, which increases the risk of bleeding complications and may require specific interventions such as reversal agents.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Oriented to person, place, and year: Meningitis often causes alterations in mental status, including confusion and disorientation. Therefore, the client may not be fully oriented to person, place, and time.
B. Severe headache: Headache is a hallmark symptom of meningitis and is often described as severe and persistent. It may be accompanied by other symptoms such as photophobia (sensitivity to light) and phonophobia (sensitivity to sound).
C. Bradycardia: Bradycardia is not typically associated with meningitis. In fact, tachycardia (elevated heart rate) may be present due to fever and systemic inflammation.
D. Blurred vision: While meningitis can lead to increased intracranial pressure, which may manifest as papilledema (swelling of the optic disc), blurred vision is not a common presenting symptom of meningitis. Visual changes are more commonly associated with conditions affecting the optic nerve or retina.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Monitor level of consciousness (LOC): While monitoring the patient's level of consciousness is important, administering medication to stop the seizure takes precedence to prevent potential complications associated with prolonged seizure activity.
B. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 4 mg IV: The priority in managing continuous tonic-clonic seizures is to terminate the seizure activity promptly. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that can help to abort seizures and is often used as first-line treatment in the acute setting.
C. Obtain computed tomography (CT) scan: While obtaining diagnostic imaging such as a CT scan may be necessary to evaluate for underlying causes of the seizure, it is not the first
intervention in the acute management of continuous seizures. Stabilizing the patient and stopping the seizure activity take precedence.
D. Give phenytoin (Dilantin) 100 mg IV: Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication that is used for long-term management of seizures but is not typically administered as first-line treatment during an acute seizure episode. Benzodiazepines like lorazepam are preferred for immediate seizure control.
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