A 76-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department by ambulance with a possible stroke. Vital signs are pulse 90, blood pressure 150/100, respirations 20. Thirty minutes later, vital signs are pulse 78, blood pressure 170/90, respirations 24 and irregular. The nurse should take which action at this time?
Check the client's phenytoin (Dilantin) level.
Get an order to decrease the rate of IV fluids.
Ask the woman to describe how she's feeling.
Offer the client clear liquids to prevent dehydration.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Check the client's phenytoin (Dilantin) level: Checking the phenytoin level would not be relevant in this situation as the client's presentation suggests a possible stroke, not related to phenytoin therapy.
B. Get an order to decrease the rate of IV fluids: While managing fluid balance is important, there is insufficient information to warrant decreasing IV fluids at this time. It's essential to assess the client's overall condition and consult with the healthcare provider before making changes to IV fluid administration.
C. Ask the woman to describe how she's feeling: Assessing the client's symptoms and response to treatment is crucial for monitoring her condition and guiding further interventions, especially in
the context of a possible stroke.
D. Offer the client clear liquids to prevent dehydration: While maintaining hydration is
important, offering clear liquids would not address the potential stroke or irregular respirations. Assessment and intervention related to the client's neurological status and respiratory function take precedence.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. The patient reports chronic severe back pain: Chronic severe back pain may indicate underlying spinal issues but does not necessarily require immediate action compared to acute symptoms such as new-onset weakness of both legs.
B. The patient expresses anxiety about having surgery: While addressing the patient's anxiety is important for providing holistic care, it is not the most immediate concern compared to new- onset weakness of both legs, which may indicate spinal cord compression requiring urgent
intervention.
C. The patient has new-onset weakness of both legs: New-onset weakness of both legs suggests potential spinal cord compression or neurological deficit requiring immediate evaluation and intervention to prevent further neurological damage or complications.
D. The patient starts to cry and says, "I feel hopeless": While addressing the patient's emotional needs is important, it is not the most immediate concern compared to addressing acute neurological symptoms such as new-onset weakness of both legs.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Administer naproxen: While pain management is important, naproxen may not effectively resolve the headache associated with post-lumbar puncture headache (PLPH), which is often caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage.
B. Elevate the head of the bed to 30°: While elevating the head of the bed may provide some relief, it is not typically sufficient to resolve PLPH, which often requires more definitive interventions.
C. Check BP and call for a blood patch: PLPH is commonly treated with a blood patch, which involves injecting the patient's own blood into the epidural space to seal the puncture site and restore normal cerebrospinal fluid pressure. Checking blood pressure is important to assess for hypotension, and calling for a blood patch is the most appropriate action to address the underlying cause of the headache.
D. Darken the client's room and close the door: While creating a quiet and dim environment may help alleviate symptoms of headache, it does not address the underlying cause of PLPH and is not the most appropriate intervention in this situation.
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