A 76-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department by ambulance with a possible stroke. Vital signs are pulse 90, blood pressure 150/100, respirations 20. Thirty minutes later, vital signs are pulse 78, blood pressure 170/90, respirations 24 and irregular. The nurse should take which action at this time?

Check the client's phenytoin (Dilantin) level.

Get an order to decrease the rate of IV fluids.

Ask the woman to describe how she's feeling.

Offer the client clear liquids to prevent dehydration.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Check the client's phenytoin (Dilantin) level: Checking the phenytoin level would not be relevant in this situation as the client's presentation suggests a possible stroke, not related to phenytoin therapy.

B. Get an order to decrease the rate of IV fluids: While managing fluid balance is important, there is insufficient information to warrant decreasing IV fluids at this time. It's essential to assess the client's overall condition and consult with the healthcare provider before making changes to IV fluid administration.

C. Ask the woman to describe how she's feeling: Assessing the client's symptoms and response to treatment is crucial for monitoring her condition and guiding further interventions, especially in
the context of a possible stroke.

D. Offer the client clear liquids to prevent dehydration: While maintaining hydration is
important, offering clear liquids would not address the potential stroke or irregular respirations. Assessment and intervention related to the client's neurological status and respiratory function take precedence.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Intracranial pressure: Monitoring intracranial pressure is important in clients with a history of subdural hematoma, but immediate assessment of respiratory status takes precedence in the immediate postoperative period to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation.

B. Respiratory status: Following evacuation of a subdural hematoma, the client may be at risk for respiratory compromise due to factors such as altered consciousness, impaired airway reflexes, or postoperative complications. Assessing respiratory rate, depth, oxygen saturation, and presence of respiratory distress is essential for early detection and intervention.

C. Temperature: Monitoring temperature is important for detecting signs of infection or systemic complications, but it is not the priority assessment immediately following evacuation of a subdural hematoma.

D. Serum electrolytes: While monitoring serum electrolytes is important for overall assessment and management of the client's condition, it is not the priority assessment in the immediate postoperative period following evacuation of a subdural hematoma.

Correct Answer is []

Explanation

The potential condition the client is most likely experiencing is a Hemorrhagic Stroke.

Prepare the client for a STAT CT brain: The client presents with sudden onset of severe headache described as the worst of their life, along with additional neurological symptoms such as left-sided weakness, aphasia, photophobia, and loss of peripheral vision. These symptoms are highly concerning for a possible hemorrhagic stroke, which requires urgent imaging such as a CT scan of the brain to confirm the diagnosis and guide immediate treatment.
Place the client on seizure precautions: The client has reported left-sided weakness and aphasia, indicating neurological deficits. Additionally, they have a history of atrialfibrillation and are on anticoagulant therapy with warfarin, resulting in an elevated INR of4.9. This INR level suggests a significantly increased risk of bleeding, including intracranial bleeding. Given these factors, the client is at risk of experiencing seizures, which is a potential complication of hemorrhagic stroke. Placing the client on seizure precautionsinvolves ensuring their safety and preventing injury in the event of a seizure.

Parameters to Monitor:

Temperature: Monitoring temperature is important to assess for the presence of fever, which could indicate an infectious process such as meningitis. However, in this case, theclient's fever is likely related to their urinary tract infection rather than directly related to the stroke. Nonetheless, monitoring temperature is still essential for overall assessment and management.
PT/INR: Monitoring the PT/INR is crucial due to the client's history of atrial fibrillation and anticoagulant therapy with warfarin. The elevated INR of 4.9 suggests that the client is at increased risk of bleeding, including intracranial bleeding. Close monitoring of PT/INR levels will help guide adjustments to anticoagulant therapy and assess the risk of further bleeding complications.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client 4 hours following evacuation of a subdural hematoma. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Correct Answer is []

Explanation

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A nurse is instructing a client's family members about feeding safety for a client who has dysphagia following a stroke. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

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A 70-year-old female patient with left-sided hemiparesis arrives by ambulance to the emergency department. Which action should the nurse take first?

Which prescribed intervention should the emergency department nurse implement first for a patient who is experiencing continuous tonic-clonic seizures?

The nurse anticipates that the client presenting with increased intracranial pressure would most likely exhibit which set of vital signs?

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