A 76-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department by ambulance with a possible stroke. Vital signs are pulse 90, blood pressure 150/100, respirations 20. Thirty minutes later, vital signs are pulse 78, blood pressure 170/90, respirations 24 and irregular. The nurse should take which action at this time?
Check the client's phenytoin (Dilantin) level.
Get an order to decrease the rate of IV fluids.
Ask the woman to describe how she's feeling.
Offer the client clear liquids to prevent dehydration.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Check the client's phenytoin (Dilantin) level: Checking the phenytoin level would not be relevant in this situation as the client's presentation suggests a possible stroke, not related to phenytoin therapy.
B. Get an order to decrease the rate of IV fluids: While managing fluid balance is important, there is insufficient information to warrant decreasing IV fluids at this time. It's essential to assess the client's overall condition and consult with the healthcare provider before making changes to IV fluid administration.
C. Ask the woman to describe how she's feeling: Assessing the client's symptoms and response to treatment is crucial for monitoring her condition and guiding further interventions, especially in
the context of a possible stroke.
D. Offer the client clear liquids to prevent dehydration: While maintaining hydration is
important, offering clear liquids would not address the potential stroke or irregular respirations. Assessment and intervention related to the client's neurological status and respiratory function take precedence.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Explanation
Intracranial hemorrhage: Given the client's history of falling out of bed, subsequent head injury, headache, seizure, and neurological deterioration (weakness on the right side of the body, dilated right pupil, confusion), there is a significant concern for intracranial hemorrhage. These symptoms suggest possible bleeding within the skull, which can rapidly escalate and become life-threatening.
Heart rate: The client's decreasing heart rate from 70/min at 1230 to 40/min at 1430 indicates bradycardia, which can be a critical sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) due to intracranial hemorrhage. Bradycardia is a late sign of increased ICP and indicates severe neurological compromise. In this context, the irregular heart rate and the associated neurological symptoms raise concerns for impending or ongoing intracranial hemorrhage.
Correct Answer is ["B","D"]
Explanation
A. Slurred speech: This can be a sign of increased ICP but is not typically considered a late sign. It is more often associated with early or moderate increases in ICP when the brain is starting to experience pressure but is not yet at a critical stage.
B. Bradycardia: This is a late sign of increased ICP and is part of Cushing's triad, which includes bradycardia, irregular respirations, and a widened pulse pressure. Bradycardia occurs as a compensatory mechanism to decrease the cerebral blood flow in response to increased ICP.
C. Hypotension: While changes in blood pressure can be associated with ICP, hypotension is not typically a late sign of increased ICP. In fact, hypertension with a widened pulse pressure would be more indicative of increased ICP as part of Cushing's triad.
D. Nonreactive dilated pupils: This is a late sign of increased ICP and indicates brain stem herniation or compression, which is a medical emergency. The pupils become fixed and dilated as the oculomotor nerve is compressed due to increased pressure.
E. Confusion: Confusion can be an early sign of increased ICP as it indicates changes in mental status. However, it is not specifically a late sign of increased ICP, as it can occur at various stages of pressure changes within the brain.
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