A patient with suspected meningitis is scheduled for a lumbar puncture. What action should the nurse take before the procedure?
Transfer the patient to radiology.
Enforce NPO status for 4 hours.
Help the patient to a lateral position.
Administer a sedative medication.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Transfer the patient to radiology: Lumbar punctures are typically performed at the bedside in the patient's room or in a procedure room, not in radiology.
B. Enforce NPO status for 4 hours: NPO (nothing by mouth) status is not typically required before a lumbar puncture unless specifically ordered by the healthcare provider for a particular reason.
C. Help the patient to a lateral position: Before a lumbar puncture, the patient should be placed in a lateral recumbent position (usually on their side with knees flexed towards the chest) to facilitate the procedure and minimize the risk of complications such as post-dural puncture headache.
D. Administer a sedative medication: Sedative medications are not routinely administered before a lumbar puncture, as they can alter the patient's level of consciousness and interfere with neurological assessment during and after the procedure.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The patient reports having a stiff neck: While a stiff neck may indicate meningeal irritation, which can be associated with a subarachnoid hemorrhage, it is not as immediately concerning as hypotension, which can indicate hypovolemic shock or complications such as vasospasm.
B. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) report shows red blood cells (RBCs): The presence of red blood cells in the cerebrospinal fluid is expected in a subarachnoid hemorrhage and is an important diagnostic finding but may not require immediate intervention.
C. The patient reports a severe and unrelenting headache: While a severe and unrelenting headache is a common symptom of subarachnoid hemorrhage, it is not as urgent as addressing hypotension, which can indicate hemodynamic instability and compromise perfusion to vital organs.
D. The patient's blood pressure (BP) is 90/50 mm Hg: Hypotension in a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage can indicate hypovolemic shock, vasospasm, or other complications. It is important to communicate this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further
evaluation and management.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Patient has slight elevations in liver function test results: Phenytoin is primarily metabolized by the liver, and elevated liver function tests may indicate impaired liver function, potentially affecting the metabolism and clearance of phenytoin. Consultation with the healthcare provider is warranted to assess the risk-benefit ratio of administering phenytoin in the presence of liver function abnormalities.
B. Patient's most recent blood pressure is 156/92 mm Hg: While hypertension is not a contraindication for phenytoin administration, it is important to monitor blood pressure, especially considering the potential cardiovascular side effects of the medication. However, elevated blood pressure alone does not typically warrant consultation before administering phenytoin.
C. Patient experiences an aura before seizures: Experiencing an aura before seizures is a common phenomenon in patients with epilepsy and does not necessarily contraindicate the use of phenytoin. In fact, phenytoin is commonly prescribed to prevent seizures, including those preceded by an aura.
D. Patient has tonic-clonic seizures: Phenytoin is indicated for the treatment and prevention of tonic-clonic seizures, among other seizure types. Therefore, the presence of tonic-clonic seizures would not typically warrant consultation before administering phenytoin.
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