A patient has a respiratory rate of 36 breaths per minute. How would the nurse describe this respiratory pattern?
Apnea
Tachypnea
Bradypnea
Orthopnea
The Correct Answer is B
A. Apnea refers to a temporary cessation of breathing. If a patient is experiencing apnea, there would be a complete stop in respiratory activity, which does not apply to a respiratory rate of 36 breaths per minute.
B. Tachypnea is defined as an increased respiratory rate, typically greater than 20 breaths per minute in adults. A respiratory rate of 36 breaths per minute falls well within this range, indicating that the patient is experiencing tachypnea.
C. Bradypnea refers to a decreased respiratory rate, usually defined as fewer than 12 breaths per minute. Since the patient’s rate is 36 breaths per minute, this option does not apply.
D. Orthopnea refers to difficulty breathing when lying flat and is not specifically related to the respiratory rate itself. It usually describes a positional dyspnea rather than a numerical measurement of breathing.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. While calamine lotion can be soothing and help alleviate itching, applying a thick coat over open lesions is not advisable. It may not allow the skin to breathe and can potentially lead to further irritation or infection. Therefore, while this option has some merit, it is not the priority intervention.
B. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is an antihistamine that can help relieve itching. This option can be beneficial for managing pruritus and may help the child sleep better. However, while it can be useful, there are other interventions that can provide immediate comfort more effectively.
C. Applying a cool cloth to the rash is an immediate and effective way to provide comfort and relieve itching. The coolness can soothe inflamed skin and reduce the urge to scratch, which helps prevent secondary infections.
D. While giving ibuprofen or acetaminophen can help reduce fever and discomfort associated with varicella, it does not specifically address pruritus. These medications are helpful for pain management but are not the best choice for alleviating itching directly.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. While allergies can impact a patient's overall health, they are not directly related to the development of peptic ulcer disease. Allergies do not contribute to the mechanisms that cause ulcers, such as increased stomach acid or mucosal damage.
B. Poor oral hygiene can lead to dental problems and infections, but it is not a recognized risk factor for peptic ulcer disease. The main causes of peptic ulcers are related to factors that affect the stomach lining, such as certain medications, lifestyle choices, and infections.
C. While diet can influence gastrointestinal health, sugary foods are not a primary risk factor for peptic ulcers. The role of sugar in ulcer development is not well established compared to other factors, such as the use of certain medications or the presence of H. pylori infection.
D. This statement is correct and is a significant risk factor for developing peptic ulcer disease. NSAIDs can cause irritation of the stomach lining and inhibit the production of protective mucus, leading to ulcer formation. Chronic use of NSAIDs is one of the most common causes of peptic ulcers.
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