A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has been stable for a year; however, the family now reports the patient is tense, sleeps 3 to 4 hours per night, and has difficulty concentrating. The patient says. "My computer is sending out infected radiation beams." The nurse can correctly assess this information as an Indication of
chronic deterioration.
medication nonadherence.
the need for psychoeducation.
relapse.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Chronic deterioration refers to a gradual, long-term decline in functioning, not the sudden emergence of new or worsening psychotic symptoms.
B. While relapse can sometimes be related to nonadherence, there is no direct evidence here that the patient has stopped taking medication, so this cannot be assumed.
C. Psychoeducation may be helpful, but the immediate concern is the reemergence of psychotic symptoms, not just a lack of understanding about the illness.
D. The patient is displaying insomnia, tension, difficulty concentrating, and paranoid delusions, which are early warning signs of a psychotic relapse in schizophrenia. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent full exacerbation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Communication disorders involve difficulties with speech, language, or communication (e.g., stuttering, limited vocabulary). The main problem here is hyperactivity, not speech/language impairment.
B. ADHD is characterized by inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. Behaviors such as being in constant motion, excessive talking, lack of sustained interest in activities, and getting up early with energy are hallmark signs of hyperactive/impulsive type ADHD.
C. Intellectual development disorder (formerly mental retardation) involves below-average intellectual functioning and impaired adaptive skills, not constant hyperactivity and excessive talking.
D. Stereotypic movement disorder is repetitive, purposeless motor behavior (e.g., hand flapping, head banging), not generalized hyperactivity and impulsivity.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare, life-threatening reaction associated with antipsychotic medications, not stimulants like methylphenidate.
B. Dystonia, akinesia, and extrapyramidal symptoms are primarily seen with antipsychotic use, not with ADHD stimulant medications.
C. Bradycardia and hypotensive episodes – Stimulants more commonly cause tachycardia and hypertension, not bradycardia or hypotension.
D. Sleep disturbances and weight loss are common side effects of methylphenidate due to its stimulant properties. Monitoring sleep patterns, appetite, and growth is a priority in children taking this medication.
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