A nurse prepares an educational session on the importance of oral hygiene. Which teaching tip should be included in the section about preventing gingivitis?
A firm toothbrush is most effective in plaque removal.
Brushing more than twice per day irritates the gums.
Ensure that dental restorations fit well.
Avoid flossing if there is bleeding at the gumline.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice a reason:
A firm toothbrush is not recommended for plaque removal as it can damage the gums and tooth enamel. Soft-bristled toothbrushes are preferred because they are effective at removing plaque while being gentle on the gums and enamel.
Choice b reason:
Brushing more than twice per day does not necessarily irritate the gums unless done with improper technique or with a hard-bristled toothbrush. It is important to brush gently with a soft-bristled toothbrush and to use fluoride toothpaste to maintain oral hygiene and prevent gingivitis.
Choice c reason:
Ensuring that dental restorations such as fillings and crowns fit well is crucial in preventing gingivitis. Poorly fitted restorations can trap food particles and bacteria, leading to plaque buildup and gum inflammation. Regular dental check-ups can help ensure that restorations remain intact and do not contribute to gingivitis.
Choice d reason:
Flossing should not be avoided even if there is bleeding at the gumline. Bleeding can be a sign of gingivitis, and flossing can help remove the plaque and bacteria causing the inflammation. If bleeding persists, it is important to consult a dentist.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice a reason:
Tympany is a drum-like, resonant sound that is typically heard over air-filled structures, such as the gastric bubble, not the chest. It is not a sound associated with the lungs, especially in the context of COPD.
Choice b reason:
Hyperresonance is an abnormally loud, lower-pitched sound than normal resonance heard over hyperinflated areas of the lung, such as in cases of COPD. This is due to the increased air content within the lungs, often because of overdistension or destruction of alveolar tissue, as seen in emphysema, a common type of COPD.
Choice c reason:
Resonance is the normal sound heard over healthy lung tissue when percussed. However, in the case of COPD, particularly emphysema, the destruction of lung tissue leads to hyperinflation and thus a hyperresonant sound rather than the normal resonance.
Choice d reason:
Dullness is heard when fluid or solid tissue replaces air in the lung or occupies the pleural space, as in the case of pneumonia or pleural effusion. This is not characteristic of COPD, where there is an increase in air due to the breakdown of alveolar walls.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is d) Stage II.
Choice a reason:
Stage IV pressure ulcers are the most severe, with full-thickness skin loss and exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. Signs of stage IV include large-scale tissue loss, possibly including slough or eschar, and may include undermining and tunneling. The scenario described does not indicate such an advanced stage, as there is no mention of exposed deeper tissues or structures.
Choice b reason:
Stage III pressure ulcers involve full-thickness skin loss, potentially affecting subcutaneous tissue but not extending to underlying muscle or bone. The wound may have a crater-like appearance. The described condition does not match stage III, as there is no indication of the ulcer extending into subcutaneous tissue.
Choice c reason:
Stage I pressure ulcers present with intact skin and non-blanchable redness of a localized area usually over a bony prominence. The skin may be painful, firm, soft, warmer, or cooler compared to adjacent tissue. In the given scenario, the skin is not intact, ruling out stage I.
Choice d reason:
Stage II pressure ulcers are characterized by partial-thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed, without slough. They may also present as intact or ruptured blisters. The description of the skin condition with erythema, serosanguineous drainage, and a blister-like appearance aligns with a stage II pressure ulcer.
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