A nurse on an antepartum unit is receiving change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and is experiencing epigastric pain and headache.
A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and is experiencing nausea and vomiting.
A client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and is experiencing painful urination.
A client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is experiencing cramping and spotting.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should assess this client first as they are at 34 weeks of gestation and experiencing epigastric pain and headache. These symptoms could be indicative of preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage. Preeclampsia requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale:
Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms during the first trimester of pregnancy, and at 12 weeks of gestation, it is less likely to be a critical issue compared to potential preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale:
Painful urination may indicate a urinary tract infection, which can be important to assess and treat, but it is not as urgent as potential signs of preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation.
Choice D rationale:
Cramping and spotting can be normal signs of impending labor, especially at 39 weeks of gestation. While it's important to assess this client, it is not the priority over potential preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation with symptoms of epigastric pain and headache.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Blood pressure of 136/88 mm Hg should be monitored, but it is not a finding that the nurse needs to urgently report to the provider following the administration of butorphanol. The blood pressure reading is slightly elevated but might be attributed to pain or anxiety during labor.
Choice B rationale:
Moderate fetal heart rate variability is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and is an expected finding during labor. It does not require immediate reporting to the provider.
Choice C rationale:
Respiratory rate of 100/min is significantly increased and should be reported to the provider following the administration of butorphanol. Respiratory depression is a potential side effect of opioids like butorphanol, and a respiratory rate of 100/min raises concern for potential respiratory compromise.
Choice D rationale:
Urinary output of 120 mL in 2 hours is an acceptable finding during labor and does not require immediate reporting to the provider. Adequate urinary output varies, but generally, 30 mL/hour is considered acceptable during labor.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice c. Heart rate 72/min.
Choice A rationale:
A blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg is within the normal range for a full-term newborn.
Choice B rationale:
A respiratory rate of 55/min is also within the normal range for a newborn, which typically ranges from 30 to 60 breaths per minute.
Choice C rationale:
A heart rate of 72/min is significantly lower than the normal range for a newborn, which is typically between 120 to 160 beats per minute. This bradycardia should be reported to the provider as it may indicate an underlying issue.
Choice D rationale:
A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) is within the normal range for a newborn, which is generally between 36.5°C to 37.5°C (97.7°F to 99.5°F).
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