A nurse on an antepartum unit is receiving change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

A client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and is experiencing epigastric pain and headache.

A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and is experiencing nausea and vomiting.

A client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and is experiencing painful urination.

A client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is experiencing cramping and spotting.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale:

The nurse should assess this client first as they are at 34 weeks of gestation and experiencing epigastric pain and headache. These symptoms could be indicative of preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage. Preeclampsia requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent further complications.

Choice B rationale:

Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms during the first trimester of pregnancy, and at 12 weeks of gestation, it is less likely to be a critical issue compared to potential preeclampsia.

Choice C rationale:

Painful urination may indicate a urinary tract infection, which can be important to assess and treat, but it is not as urgent as potential signs of preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation.

Choice D rationale:

Cramping and spotting can be normal signs of impending labor, especially at 39 weeks of gestation. While it's important to assess this client, it is not the priority over potential preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation with symptoms of epigastric pain and headache.

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Correct Answer is ["B","C"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Newborn weight of 2.948 kg (6 lb 8 oz) does not place the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Newborn weight is not directly related to the risk of postpartum hemorrhage in the mother.

Choice B rationale:

History of uterine atony places the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage and refers to the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding.

Choice C rationale:

Labor induction with oxytocin places the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Oxytocin is commonly used to induce labor or augment contractions, but it can cause uterine hyperstimulation, leading to increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage.

Choice D rationale:

History of human papillomavirus (HPV) does not place the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection and does not have a direct connection to the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.

Choice E rationale:

Vacuum-assisted delivery places the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Vacuum assisted delivery involves using a vacuum device to assist in the baby's delivery, and it can cause trauma to the birth canal, leading to increased bleeding risk in the mother.

A. Preterm gestational age. B. Decreased maternal hormones during pregnancy. C. Congenital anomaly. D. Ambiguous secondary sex characteristics.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Preterm gestational age is not indicated by the presence of breast tissue with a flat areola and no bud. Preterm newborns may have immature breast tissue, but it does not manifest as a flat areola with no bud.

Choice B rationale:
Decreased maternal hormones during pregnancy would result in less developed breast tissue in the newborn, but it wouldn't present as a flat areola with no bud. Instead, the breast tissue may be small and less pronounced.

Choice C rationale:
Congenital anomaly refers to a birth defect or malformation that occurs during fetal development. In this case, the flat areola with no bud suggests an abnormality in the development of the breast tissue. Further assessment and evaluation may be required to determine the exact nature of the anomaly.

Choice D rationale:
Ambiguous secondary sex characteristics would involve the presence of characteristics that are not clearly male or female. The described breast tissue does not fit this category, as it is specifically described as having a flat areola with no bud, which is more indicative of a congenital anomaly.
Question 65.

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A nurse on an antepartum unit is receiving change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who had a vaginal delivery 3 hr ago. Which of the following findings places the client at risk for postpartum haemorrhage?(Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["B","C"]

Explanation

A nurse is performing an assessment for a newborn and notes breast tissue that has a flat areola with no bud. The nurse should identify that this finding indicates which of the following conditions?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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A nurse on an antepartum unit is receiving change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

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