A nurse on an antepartum unit is receiving change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and is experiencing epigastric pain and headache.
A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and is experiencing nausea and vomiting.
A client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and is experiencing painful urination.
A client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is experiencing cramping and spotting.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should assess this client first as they are at 34 weeks of gestation and experiencing epigastric pain and headache. These symptoms could be indicative of preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage. Preeclampsia requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale:
Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms during the first trimester of pregnancy, and at 12 weeks of gestation, it is less likely to be a critical issue compared to potential preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale:
Painful urination may indicate a urinary tract infection, which can be important to assess and treat, but it is not as urgent as potential signs of preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation.
Choice D rationale:
Cramping and spotting can be normal signs of impending labor, especially at 39 weeks of gestation. While it's important to assess this client, it is not the priority over potential preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation with symptoms of epigastric pain and headache.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Levothyroxine is not a medication used to treat gestational diabetes mellitus. Levothyroxine is a synthetic thyroid hormone used to treat hypothyroidism, which is a different medical condition.
Choice B rationale:
Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker primarily used to manage hypertension and angina. It is not indicated for the treatment of gestational diabetes mellitus.
Choice C rationale:
Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic medication used to treat conditions like schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. It has no role in the treatment of gestational diabetes mellitus.
Choice D rationale:
Glyburide is the correct medication to expect for administering to a client with gestational diabetes mellitus. Glyburide is an oral antidiabetic agent that helps lower blood glucose levels by increasing insulin secretion from the pancreas. It is often used when dietary and lifestyle modifications are not sufficient in managing gestational diabetes. However, it is essential to follow healthcare provider guidelines and closely monitor the client's blood glucose levels while on this medication. In some cases, insulin may be required if glyburide alone is inadequate in controlling blood sugar levels.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should assess this client first as they are at 34 weeks of gestation and experiencing epigastric pain and headache. These symptoms could be indicative of preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage. Preeclampsia requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale:
Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms during the first trimester of pregnancy, and at 12 weeks of gestation, it is less likely to be a critical issue compared to potential preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale:
Painful urination may indicate a urinary tract infection, which can be important to assess and treat, but it is not as urgent as potential signs of preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation.
Choice D rationale:
Cramping and spotting can be normal signs of impending labor, especially at 39 weeks of gestation. While it's important to assess this client, it is not the priority over potential preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation with symptoms of epigastric pain and headache.
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