A nurse is caring for a client who has had a pudendal nerve block. The nurse should monitor which of the following findings has an adverse effect.
Fetal bradycardia.
Decreased ability to bear down.
Maternal hypertension.
Uterine hyperstimulation.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. Decreased ability to bear down.
Choice A rationale:
Fetal bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of a pudendal nerve block. This block primarily affects the mother’s pelvic region and does not typically impact fetal heart rate.
Choice B rationale:
Decreased ability to bear down is correct because the pudendal nerve block can numb the perineal area, reducing the mother’s ability to feel contractions and effectively bear down during labor.
Choice C rationale:
Maternal hypertension is not associated with pudendal nerve blocks. This block is localized and does not generally affect systemic blood pressure.
Choice D rationale:
Uterine hyperstimulation is not a known adverse effect of pudendal nerve blocks. This condition is more commonly associated with the use of labor-inducing drugs like oxytocin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A client with placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36% should be monitored closely due to the risk of bleeding, but it is not an immediate priority compared to the client with hyperemesis gravidarum and a low sodium level.
Choice B rationale:
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of morning sickness characterized by excessive vomiting, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. A sodium level of 110 mEq/L is dangerously low and requires immediate attention to correct the electrolyte disturbance and prevent further complications.
Choice C rationale:
A client with diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8% is within a normal range, indicating good glycemic control. This client's condition can be managed on an outpatient basis and does not require urgent assessment compared to the others.
Choice D rationale:
A client with preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL should be closely monitored, but it is not the priority over the client with hyperemesis gravidarum and severe electrolyte imbalance.
Correct Answer is ["B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Newborn weight of 2.948 kg (6 lb 8 oz) does not place the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Newborn weight is not directly related to the risk of postpartum hemorrhage in the mother.
Choice B rationale:
History of uterine atony places the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage and refers to the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding.
Choice C rationale:
Labor induction with oxytocin places the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Oxytocin is commonly used to induce labor or augment contractions, but it can cause uterine hyperstimulation, leading to increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice D rationale:
History of human papillomavirus (HPV) does not place the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection and does not have a direct connection to the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice E rationale:
Vacuum-assisted delivery places the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Vacuum assisted delivery involves using a vacuum device to assist in the baby's delivery, and it can cause trauma to the birth canal, leading to increased bleeding risk in the mother.
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