A nurse on a step-down unit is admitting a client.
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.
The nurse should first
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Rationale for correct choices:
- Apply oxygen via nasal cannula: The client’s oxygen saturation levels of 87–88% on room air indicate moderate to severe hypoxemia, requiring immediate correction. Since the client has a history of COPD and is post-MI, improving oxygenation is essential to reduce myocardial workload and prevent further ischemia or respiratory distress.
- Initiating a consult for cardiac rehabilitation: Once the client's immediate needs are stabilized, early initiation of cardiac rehabilitation is appropriate. This supports physical recovery, promotes lifestyle changes like smoking cessation and exercise, and reduces future cardiac risk.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
- Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin: The client’s chest pain has resolved following the initial dose, so there is no current indication to give a second dose. Re-administering nitroglycerin unnecessarily can lead to hypotension or reflex tachycardia, especially risky in a post-MI patient.
- Request a prescription for a PRN anxiolytic: The client has already been prescribed alprazolam 0.5 mg three times daily, and their anxiety has improved. Requesting an additional anxiolytic is unnecessary at this point and does not address the more urgent issue of low oxygen saturation.
- Requesting a prescription for a WBC count: There are no signs or symptoms of infection such as fever, chills, or elevated WBC to justify this request. The focus should remain on the client’s cardiopulmonary status and rehabilitation rather than diagnostics that are not clinically indicated.
- Administering a bolus of fluids: There is no clinical indication of fluid volume deficit, hypotension, or dehydration. Administering fluids to a post-MI patient with COPD may lead to fluid overload, pulmonary edema, or increased myocardial strain.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Disenfranchised: Disenfranchised grief occurs when the person's mourning is not socially recognized or supported, such as grieving an ex-partner or a stigmatized relationship. In this scenario, the grief is acknowledged and expected, making this option less appropriate.
B. Anticipatory: Anticipatory grief happens when individuals begin mourning a loss before it occurs, as in terminal illness. The family member’s struggle with “letting her go” reflects emotional processing of an expected death before it happens.
C. Delayed: Delayed grief is a postponed emotional response to a loss, often surfacing long after the event. Since the family member is currently expressing emotional difficulty, this is not an example of delayed grief.
D. Exaggerated: Exaggerated grief is intense, overwhelming, and can impair functioning. It may include suicidal ideation or severe depression. The statement indicates sadness and difficulty coping, but not extreme or dysfunctional symptoms.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Tomato allergy: A tomato allergy is not relevant to the ingredients used in total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with fat emulsion. Tomatoes are not a component of lipid emulsions, so this does not present a concern in this context.
B. Citrus allergy: Citrus fruits are also not involved in the formulation of fat emulsions or TPN components. Therefore, a citrus allergy would not require special precautions related to the prescribed therapy.
C. Egg allergy: Lipid emulsions used in TPN often contain egg phospholipids as an emulsifying agent. Clients with an egg allergy may experience a hypersensitivity reaction, making this a critical finding that must be reported to the provider immediately.
D. Wheat allergy: Wheat is not a component of standard TPN or fat emulsions. While wheat allergies are significant for dietary intake, they do not pose a known risk with parenteral nutrition administration.
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