A nurse on a medical unit is planning care for a group of clients.
Which of the following clients should the nurse attend to first?
A client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and an oxygen saturation of 89%.
A client who has thrombocytopenia and reports a nosebleed.
A client who has left-sided paralysis and slurred speech from a prior stroke.
A client who has multiple sclerosis and reports ataxia and vertigo.
The Correct Answer is B
The nurse should attend to the client who has thrombocytopenia and reports a nosebleed first.
Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by low platelet count, which increases the risk of bleeding.
A nosebleed can be a sign of significant bleeding, and it is important for the nurse to assess the severity and take appropriate action to stop the bleeding and prevent further complications.
Although the other clients also require nursing care, their conditions are not as urgent as the client with thrombocytopenia and a nosebleed.
The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and an oxygen saturation of 89% may require oxygen therapy or other interventions to improve respiratory function, but the situation is not immediately life-threatening.
The client with left-sided paralysis and slurred speech from a prior stroke may require ongoing care and rehabilitation, but there is no indication of an acute change in their condition.
The client with multiple sclerosis and ataxia and vertigo may require assistance with mobility and balance, but their symptoms do not pose an immediate threat to their health.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The nurse should plan to insert a large-bore nasogastric tube for a client who has upper gastrointestinal bleeding due to a peptic ulcer.
This allows for gastric lavage and can help diagnose the source of bleeding.
Choice A is wrong because a 22-gauge IV line may be too small for rapid fluid resuscitation.
Choice B is wrong because ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.
Choice C is wrong because nitroprusside is a vasodilator used to treat hypertensive emergencies and is not typically used for upper gastrointestinal bleeding.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is A. Back pain.
Choice A reason: Back pain during a blood transfusion is a classic symptom of a hemolytic transfusion reaction. This type of reaction occurs when the immune system attacks the transfused red blood cells, leading to their destruction. Back pain is considered a more specific and early sign of this reaction.
Choice B reason: Bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate, is not typically associated with hemolytic transfusion reactions. The normal range for an adult’s resting heart rate is between 60 to 100 beats per minute. Bradycardia is usually considered when the heart rate is lower than 60 beats per minute in a resting adult. It can be a sign of a well-trained athlete or can occur as a result of certain medications or heart conditions, but it is not a recognized symptom of a hemolytic transfusion reaction.
Choice C reason: Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is also not a common symptom of a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Normal blood pressure ranges from 90/60 mmHg to 120/80 mmHg. Hypertension is typically defined as having a blood pressure higher than 130/80 mmHg. While hypertension can be a serious condition, it is not indicative of a hemolytic transfusion reaction.
Choice D reason: Chills are a symptom that can be associated with a hemolytic transfusion reaction, often occurring alongside fever and back pain. However, while chills can indicate a reaction, back pain is a more specific symptom that can help differentiate a hemolytic reaction from other types of transfusion reactions.
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