A nurse is teaching a client who is prescribed COCs about the mechanism of action of these pills.
The nurse should explain that COCs prevent pregnancy by?
Inhibiting the production of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)
Increasing the production of prostaglandins that cause uterine contractions
Decreasing the permeability of the fallopian tubes to sperm and egg
Suppressing ovulation, thickening cervical mucus and altering the uterine lining
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. COCs prevent pregnancy by inhibiting the production of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), which are responsible for ovulation.
By suppressing ovulation, COCs prevent the release of a mature egg that can be fertilized by sperm.
Choice B is wrong because COCs do not increase the production of prostaglandins that cause uterine contractions.
Prostaglandins are involved in inflammation and pain, and are not directly related to contraception.
Choice C is wrong because COCs do not decrease the permeability of the fallopian tubes to sperm and egg.
The fallopian tubes are the site of fertilization, and COCs do not affect their function.
Choice D is partially correct but not the best answer. COCs do suppress ovulation, but they also have other mechanisms of action, such as thickening cervical mucus and altering the uterine lining.
These effects make it harder for sperm to reach the egg and for a fertilized egg to implant in the uterus.
Therefore, choice D does not capture the full mechanism of action of COCs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. The client has a positive pregnancy test result.
This is a contraindication for bilateral tubal ligation because the procedure is a permanent form of contraception and should not be performed on a pregnant woman.
The client should be counseled about other options for birth control or termination of pregnancy.
Choice A is wrong because a history of pelvic inflammatory disease is not a contraindication for bilateral tubal ligation.It may increase the risk of complications from the surgery, such as infection or adhesions, but it does not prevent the procedure from being performed.
Choice C is wrong because a family history of breast cancer is not a contraindication for bilateral tubal ligation.It may affect the client’s decision to undergo the procedure, as some studies have suggested that tubal ligation may reduce the risk of ovarian cancer, which is associated with breast cancer.
However, this is not a medical reason to avoid the surgery.
Choice D is wrong because a history of endometriosis is not a contraindication for bilateral tubal ligation.
It may cause pelvic pain or infertility, but it does not affect the effectiveness or safety of the procedure.In fact, some studies have shown that tubal ligation may improve the symptoms of endometriosis by reducing retrograde menstruation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Increased risk of HIV transmission.According to some sources, spermicide that contains nonoxynol-9 (N-9) can irritate sensitive genital tissues, especially if used several times a day.
This irritation can increase the risk of HIV and other sexually transmitted infections by giving infections an easy pathway into the body.
Choice A is wrong because vaginal dryness is not a common side effect of spermicide.
Choice B is wrong because bacterial vaginosis is not directly linked to spermicide use.
Choice D is wrong because cervical cancer is not caused by spermicide use.
Spermicide is a type of contraceptive that works by stopping sperm from reaching an egg.
It comes in different forms such as gels, creams, foams, films or suppositories.It needs to be inserted into the vagina before sex and used correctly every time for it to be effective.
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