A nurse is teaching a client who has pernicious anemia to self-administer nasal cyanocobalamin. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
“Use a nasal decongestant 15 minutes before the medication if you have a stuffy nose."
"Plan to self-administer this medication for the next 6 months."
"Lie down for 1 hour after administering the medication."
"Administer the medication into one nostril once per week."
The Correct Answer is D
A. “Use a nasal decongestant 15 minutes before the medication if you have a stuffy nose": This statement is not necessary for the administration of nasal cyanocobalamin. Nasal decongestants are not routinely recommended before administering nasal medications.
B. "Plan to self-administer this medication for the next 6 months": While the duration of treatment for pernicious anemia may vary, specifying a timeframe of 6 months for self- administration is not appropriate without considering individualized treatment plans.
C. "Lie down for 1 hour after administering the medication": There is no need for the client to lie down after administering nasal cyanocobalamin. This instruction is not necessary and may not be practical.
D. "Administer the medication into one nostril once per week": This is the correct instruction for administering nasal cyanocobalamin. It is typically given once weekly into one nostril. This
method provides a convenient and effective route for vitamin B12 supplementation in clients with pernicious anemia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Urinary retention: While urinary retention can be a complication of epidural anesthesia, it is not the priority finding in this scenario. The priority is to address potential complications that can lead to maternal or fetal compromise.
B. Leg weakness: Leg weakness can occur as a side effect of epidural anesthesia but is not the priority finding in this scenario unless it is severe and compromises the client's ability to
mobilize or push during labor.
C. Hypotension: Hypotension is a common complication of epidural anesthesia due to sympathetic blockade, which can lead to decreased venous return and subsequent maternal
hypotension. Maternal hypotension can compromise uteroplacental perfusion, leading to fetal distress. Therefore, addressing hypotension promptly is the priority to prevent adverse maternal and fetal outcomes.
D. Temperature 39°C (102.2°F): While fever should be monitored and addressed, it is not the priority finding in this scenario unless it indicates an infection, which would require further assessment and intervention. However, maternal hypotension poses a more immediate risk to both the mother and the fetus during labor.

Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Hyperactive bowel sounds: Muscarinic agonist poisoning typically results in increased gastrointestinal motility and hyperactive bowel sounds. Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, works by blocking muscarinic receptors and reducing gastrointestinal motility. Therefore, the presence of hyperactive bowel sounds may indicate ongoing muscarinic stimulation and inadequate treatment with atropine.
B. Heart rate 90/min: Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that increases heart rate by blocking the parasympathetic effects of acetylcholine on the heart. Bradycardia is a common manifestation of muscarinic agonist poisoning, and an increase in heart rate following atropine administration indicates reversal of this effect and effective treatment.
C. Blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg: Atropine administration may result in transient hypertension due to its effect on increasing heart rate and cardiac output. Hypotension is a common
manifestation of muscarinic agonist poisoning, and an increase in blood pressure following atropine administration may indicate improvement in cardiovascular function. Therefore, a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg may not necessarily indicate effective treatment with atropine.
D. Increased salivation: Muscarinic agonist poisoning typically results in excessive salivation (sialorrhea) due to stimulation of muscarinic receptors in the salivary glands. Atropine administration works by blocking these muscarinic receptors and reducing salivation. Therefore, increased salivation would indicate ongoing muscarinic stimulation and inadequate treatment with atropine.
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