A nurse is teaching a client who has alcohol use disorder about disulfiram. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
"Taking disulfiram is an alternate therapy instead of joining Alcoholics Anonymous.
"I should avoid products containing alcohol, like mouthwash, while taking this medication."
"Disulfiram is mainly used for people who are at a high risk for a relapse of drinking alcohol.
"My sensitivity to alcohol will go away 24 hours after I stop taking this medication."
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale:
A. "Taking disulfiram is an alternate therapy instead of joining Alcoholics Anonymous.": Disulfiram is a pharmacologic aid and should be used in combination with counseling or support groups like Alcoholics Anonymous. It is not a standalone treatment and does not replace behavioral therapies.
B. "I should avoid products containing alcohol, like mouthwash, while taking this medication.": Disulfiram causes a severe reaction when alcohol is ingested, even in small amounts found in products like mouthwash or cough syrup. Avoiding all alcohol-containing products demonstrates correct understanding of safety precautions while taking this medication.
C. "Disulfiram is mainly used for people who are at a high risk for a relapse of drinking alcohol.": Disulfiram is primarily used to maintain abstinence by causing unpleasant reactions with alcohol, but it is not limited to clients at high risk of relapse. It is important for all clients on disulfiram to understand adherence and alcohol avoidance.
D. "My sensitivity to alcohol will go away 24 hours after I stop taking this medication.": Disulfiram’s effects persist for up to 14 days after discontinuation, not just 24 hours. The client must continue to avoid alcohol for a longer period even after stopping the medication to prevent adverse reactions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. History of severe menorrhagia: A copper IUD can increase menstrual bleeding and cramping. Clients with a history of severe menorrhagia are at higher risk for exacerbated bleeding and anemia, making this a contraindication to IUD insertion. Alternative contraceptive methods should be considered for these clients.
B. Desire to become pregnant in 1 to 2 years: While the client’s future fertility plans may influence contraceptive choice, it is not a medical contraindication. The IUD can be removed at any time, allowing fertility to return quickly, so this does not preclude insertion.
C. Takes antiretroviral therapy for HIV: HIV infection or antiretroviral therapy is not a contraindication to IUD use. Clients with HIV can safely use intrauterine contraception, provided there are no active pelvic infections.
D. Report of unprotected sex in the past 24 hr: Recent unprotected intercourse is not a contraindication, but the nurse should assess the risk of pregnancy and consider emergency contraception if appropriate. It does not medically prevent IUD insertion.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"E","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Choices
- Intravenous antibiotics: The client presents with uterine tenderness, dark foul-smelling lochia, a mildly elevated temperature, and an elevated WBC count, all of which point to endometritis, a common postpartum infection. The first-line treatment for endometritis is broad-spectrum IV antibiotics to prevent complications like sepsis.
- Increase in daily fluid intake: Infection and fever can increase fluid loss through insensible means, and fluids support circulation, renal function, and antibiotic delivery. Encouraging increased fluid intake also helps address dehydration from fever and supports healing and lactation.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices
- Kleihauer-Betke test: This test detects fetal-to-maternal hemorrhage and is used in trauma or suspected placental abruption in Rh-negative mothers. There is no indication of bleeding or Rh incompatibility in this case, so it is not appropriate here.
- Tocolytic medication: Tocolytics are used to suppress uterine contractions in preterm labor. This client is postpartum and has no signs of preterm labor or uterine hyperstimulation, so this medication is not warranted.
- Intrauterine tamponade balloon: This device is used for severe postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony that doesn’t respond to medical treatment. The client has moderate lochia but no signs of active hemorrhage or hemodynamic instability, so it is not indicated.
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