A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for total parenteral nutrition through a central line. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
"I will change your IV tubing once every 48 hours."
"Abdominal distention is an expected effect of this therapy."
"I will need to check your gastric residual before administering feedings."
"I will need to measure your weight daily."
The Correct Answer is D
- A is incorrect because IV tubing for total parenteral nutrition should be changed every 24 hours to prevent infection.
- B is incorrect because abdominal distention is not an expected effect of total parenteral nutrition. It could indicate a complication such as fluid overload or bowel obstruction.
- C is incorrect because gastric residual is not relevant for total parenteral nutrition, which bypasses the gastrointestinal tract.
- D is correct because weight measurement is an important indicator of fluid balance and nutritional status for clients receiving total parenteral nutrition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
- A: Incorrect. Decreased blood pressure is not an indication of chlorpromazine effectiveness, but rather a potential adverse effect that should be monitored and reported.
- B: Correct. Decreased hallucinations are an indication of chlorpromazine effectiveness, as this medication is an antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors in the brain and reduces psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and paranoia.
- C: Incorrect. Decreased cholesterol is not an indication of chlorpromazine effectiveness, but rather a potential benefit that may occur due to its effect on lipid metabolism.
- D: Incorrect. Decreased esophageal reflux is not an indication of chlorpromazine effectiveness, but rather a potential adverse effect that should be avoided by taking the medication with food or water and avoiding lying down after administration.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
- A. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature does not drop 1 degree 1 week after ovulation. The body temperature rises slightly (about 0.4 to 0.8 degrees Fahrenheit) after ovulation and remains elevated until the next menstrual period.
- B. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature should be taken each morning before getting out of bed or doing any activity. Taking the temperature in the evening can result in inaccurate readings due to variations in daily activities, meals, stress, exercise, etc.
- C. This choice is correct because the body temperature might decrease slightly (about 0.2 degrees Fahrenheit) just prior to ovulation due to a surge in estrogen levels. This dip in temperature can indicate that ovulation is about to occur and that the client should avoid unprotected intercourse if she wants to prevent pregnancy.
- D. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature is not at its highest during menstruation. The body temperature drops at the onset of menstruation due to a decline in progesterone levels and marks the beginning of a new cycle.
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