A nurse is reviewing the results of laboratory screenings for a 9-month-old infant.
Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?

Choice A rationale:

Uterine rupture typically presents with intense, constant abdominal pain and signs of shock. However, the absence of visible bleeding in the abdominal cavity makes this choice less likely in this case.

Choice B rationale:

Placental abruption involves the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery. The sudden, severe abdominal pain, moderate vaginal bleeding, persistent uterine contractions, and signs of hypovolemic shock (low blood pressure, rigid abdomen) are indicative of placental abruption. This condition requires immediate medical intervention due to the risk of fetal and maternal compromise.

Choice C rationale:

Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening. It typically presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The severe abdominal pain described in the scenario is inconsistent with placenta previa.

Choice D rationale:

Amniotic fluid embolus is a rare and life-threatening condition in which amniotic fluid enters the maternal bloodstream, causing an allergic reaction. It can lead to sudden cardiovascular collapse. Although it can cause respiratory distress and hypotension, it does not usually present with severe abdominal pain or uterine contractions.

- A is correct because aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy and guides dosage adjustments.

- B is incorrect because PT (prothrombin time) measures the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, not heparin.

- C is incorrect because INR (international normalized ratio) is a standardized version of PT that also monitors warfarin therapy, not heparin.

- D is incorrect because WBC count (white blood cell count) measures the body's immune response and has no relation to heparin therapy.