A nurse is reviewing the results of a Contraction Stress Test (CST) with a pregnant client.
What does an equivocal CST indicate?
Late decelerations of the FHR with less than 50% of contractions.
Late decelerations of the FHR with at least 50% of contractions.
No late decelerations of the FHR during contractions.
Variable decelerations of the FHR with or without contractions.
The Correct Answer is A
An equivocal CST indicates late decelerations of the FHR with less than 50% of contractions.
This means that the fetus may have some degree of hypoxia or distress, but not enough to warrant immediate delivery.
An equivocal CST may also result from hyperstimulation of the uterus, which can cause excessive contractions and reduce blood flow to the placenta.
Choice B is wrong because late decelerations of the FHR with at least 50% of contractions is a positive CST, which indicates a high risk of fetal death due to hypoxia and is a contraindication to labor.
Choice C is wrong because no late decelerations of the FHR during contractions is a negative CST, which indicates a good fetal wellbeing and tolerance of labor.
Choice D is wrong because variable decelerations of the FHR with or without contractions are not related to uterine activity and may indicate cord compression or other fetal problems.
Variable decelerations are not used to interpret CST results.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
"NST is performed after 28 weeks of gestation or earlier if there are risk factors."12 This statement indicates that the client understands when and why an NST is done.
Choice B is wrong because it describes a reactive NST, not a nonreactive one.
A reactive NST means that the fetal heart rate increases by at least 15 beats per minute for at least 15 seconds twice or more in a 20-minute period.2
Choice C is wrong because it confuses NST with contraction stress test (CST), which requires monitoring uterine contractions.
NST does not involve contractions.2
Choice D is wrong because it describes possible causes of a nonreactive NST, not a reactive one.
A nonreactive NST may indicate fetal hypoxia, distress, sleep, medication effect, or neurological abnormality.2
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
AFP is a screening tool that can indicate the possibility of certain fetal anomalies, such as neural tube defects, abdominal wall defects, or chromosomal abnormalities.
However, AFP results are not diagnostic and cannot confirm the presence or absence of these conditions.
Therefore, further tests, such as ultrasound or amniocentesis, are needed to verify the results.
Choice A is wrong because AFP results are not diagnostic for fetal anomalies.
They only indicate a risk level that needs to be confirmed by other tests.
Choice C is wrong because AFP results can detect not only neural tube defects, but also other fetal anomalies, such as abdominal wall defects or chromosomal abnormalities.
Choice D is wrong because AFP results are not affected by maternal race and ethnicity.
They are affected by maternal age, weight, diabetes, multiple gestation, and gestational age.
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