A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a male client who has chlamydia. Which of the following factors contribute to the client's risk of chlamydia? (Select all that apply.)

The client is Black.

The client has several sexual partners.

The client is male.

The client has sex with men.

The client is 37 years old.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : B,C,D

Choice A reason:
The statement "The client is Black" does not contribute to the risk of chlamydia based on race alone. Chlamydia infection rates are influenced by a variety of factors, including access to healthcare and socioeconomic status, rather than race itself.

Choice B reason:
Having multiple sexual partners significantly increases the risk of contracting sexually transmitted infections (STIs) like chlamydia because it raises the likelihood of exposure to an infected partner.

Choice C reason:
While being male is not a risk factor in itself, men who have sex with men (MSM) are at a higher risk for STIs like chlamydia due to biological and behavioral factors that facilitate transmission.

Choice D reason:
Engaging in sexual activities with men is a known risk factor for chlamydia among MSM due to the higher prevalence of this STI within this group.

Choice E reason:
The age of 37 does not specifically contribute to the risk of chlamydia. However, chlamydia is more commonly diagnosed in younger individuals, typically those under 25 years old, due to higher rates of new and multiple sexual partnerships.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue, which can lead to its enlargement. While hyperplasia can be a response to a stimulus and is not necessarily precancerous, it does not describe the abnormal changes in the shape, size, and organization of mature cells.

Choice B reason:
Metaplasia is a reversible change in which one differentiated cell type is replaced by another cell type. This process can be a response to chronic irritation and inflammation, and while it may predispose cells to cancerous changes, it is not in itself a precancerous condition.

Choice C reason:
The term 'malignant' refers to cancerous cells that have the ability to invade and destroy nearby tissue and spread to other parts of the body. The description of the cells as 'moderately abnormal' does not indicate that the cells are malignant but rather that they are showing signs of potentially precancerous changes.

Choice D reason:
Dysplasia refers to the presence of abnormal cells within a tissue or organ. It is characterized by changes in cell size, shape, uniformity, arrangement, and structure, particularly when such changes are strongly suggestive of developing neoplasia, or new, abnormal growth. In the context of a Pap smear, dysplasia is indicative of precancerous changes and is the term used to describe the abnormal development of cells on the cervix.

A. Malignant melanoma B. Basal cell carcinoma C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Actinic keratosis

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Malignant melanoma typically presents as a mole that changes in color, size, or feel and has irregular edges. It may also itch, ooze, or bleed. A raised, flesh-colored lesion with pearly white borders is not characteristic of malignant melanoma.

Choice B reason:
Basal cell carcinoma often appears as a raised, pearly bump, sometimes with visible blood vessels, which may have a central depression. The description of the lesion as raised, flesh-colored with pearly white borders aligns with the common presentation of basal cell carcinoma.

Choice C reason:
Squamous cell carcinoma usually presents as a firm, red nodule, or a flat lesion with a scaly, crusted surface. The lesion described does not match the typical appearance of squamous cell carcinoma.

Choice D reason:
Actinic keratosis is characterized by rough, scaly patches on sun-exposed areas of the skin, which may be precancerous. They are not typically described as raised, flesh-colored lesions with pearly borders.

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A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a male client who has chlamydia. Which of the following factors contribute to the client's risk of chlamydia? (Select all that apply.)

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of a client's most recent Pap smear that indicates moderately abnormal cervical cells were present. Based on the description of the cells, which of the following changes of precancerous cell growth to the client's cervix should the nurse identify?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

During a routine physical examination, a nurse observes a 1-cm (0.4-in) lesion on a client's chest. The lesion is raised and flesh-colored with pearly white borders. The nurse should recognize that this finding is suggestive of which of the following types of skin cancer?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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