A nurse is reviewing orders for a patient in anaphylactic shock. Which medication should the nurse plan to administer first?
Glucose Dextrose Oral (GDO)
Epinephrine (Adrenaline)
Dexamethasone (Decadron)
0.9% Normal Saline
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Glucose Dextrose Oral (GDO) is not typically used in the immediate management of anaphylactic shock. Anaphylaxis requires rapid treatment to address severe allergic reactions and GDO does not play a role in this emergency situation.
Choice B reason: Epinephrine (Adrenaline) is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock. It works quickly to improve breathing, stimulate the heart, raise a dropping blood pressure, reverse hives, and reduce swelling of the face, lips, and throat.
Choice C reason: Dexamethasone (Decadron) is a corticosteroid that may be used in the treatment of anaphylaxis to reduce inflammation. However, it is not the first medication administered due to its slower onset of action compared to epinephrine.
Choice D reason: 0.9% Normal Saline is used for intravenous fluid resuscitation in anaphylactic shock but is secondary to the administration of epinephrine. It helps to maintain blood pressure and is important in the overall management but not the first medication given.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: A client with diabetes mellitus presenting with acute ketoacidosis does not necessarily require a private room unless there are other infection control concerns. Acute ketoacidosis is a metabolic complication of diabetes that can be managed in a general ward setting with appropriate medical care and monitoring.
Choice B reason: An older adult client admitted with aspiration pneumonia would benefit from a private room if the pneumonia is caused by an infectious agent that requires droplet or airborne precautions. However, aspiration pneumonia is often a result of inhaling food, stomach acid, or saliva into the lungs, and not always infectious.
Choice C reason: A client with a compound fracture of the right femur would require a private room if there is an associated risk of infection due to the open nature of the injury. However, standard precautions and wound care can often be managed in a semi-private or general ward setting unless there are specific infection control issues.
Choice D reason: A client reporting fever, night sweats, and cough for 2 days may be exhibiting symptoms of a communicable disease such as tuberculosis. This client would require a private room with airborne precautions to prevent the spread of infection to other patients and healthcare workers.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Administering prescribed corticosteroids is not the appropriate action for dyspnea associated with fluid overload from IV infusion. Corticosteroids are typically used to manage inflammatory conditions and are not indicated for this scenario.
Choice B reason: Slowing the infusion rate is the correct action when signs of fluid overload are present, such as dyspnea and hypertension. This helps to prevent further fluid accumulation. Contacting the provider is essential for further evaluation and management, which may include adjusting the fluid regimen or prescribing diuretics to manage the fluid overload.
Choice C reason: Lowering the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position may provide temporary relief for dyspnea but does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload. It is a supportive measure but should be accompanied by other interventions to manage the client's condition.
Choice D reason: Changing the infusion to lactated Ringer's would not address the issue of fluid overload and could potentially exacerbate the situation if the rate is maintained. The type of IV fluid is less important than the volume and rate of administration in the case of fluid overload.
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