A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has metabolic alkalosis. Which of the following blood gas values should the nurse expect?
pH 7.36 (7.35 to 7.45), PaCO2 38 mm Hg (35 to 45 mmHg) HCO3 25 mEq/L (22 to 26 mEq/L)
pH 7.48 (7.35 to 7.45), PaCO, 32 mm Hg (35 to 45 mm Hg). HCO3 24 mEq/L (22 to 26 mE q/L)
pH 7.46 (7.35 to 7.45). PaCO2 36 mm Hg (35 to 45 mm Hg). HCO3 29 mEq/L (22 to 26 mEq/L)
pH 7.26 (7.35 to 7.45). PaCO, 35 mm Hg (35 to 45 mm Hg). HCO3 18 mEq/L (22 to 26 mEq/L)
The Correct Answer is C
A) pH 7.36 (7.35 to 7.45), PaCO2 38 mm Hg (35 to 45 mmHg), HCO3 25 mEq/L (22 to 26 mEq/L): This is a normal set of arterial blood gas (ABG) values, with a pH within normal range, a normal PaCO2, and a normal HCO3. It does not suggest metabolic alkalosis.
B) pH 7.48 (7.35 to 7.45), PaCO2 32 mm Hg (35 to 45 mm Hg), HCO3 24 mEq/L (22 to 26 mEq/L): Although the pH is elevated, indicating alkalosis, the PaCO2 is slightly low, and the bicarbonate (HCO3) is within the normal range. This set of values does not indicate metabolic alkalosis, but could indicate respiratory alkalosis or compensated alkalosis.
C) pH 7.46 (7.35 to 7.45), PaCO2 36 mm Hg (35 to 45 mm Hg), HCO3 29 mEq/L (22 to 26 mEq/L): This is consistent with metabolic alkalosis. The elevated pH (alkalosis) combined with an increased bicarbonate level (HCO3 > 26 mEq/L) and a normal PaCO2 suggests metabolic alkalosis, as the kidneys retain bicarbonate to compensate for the condition.
D) pH 7.26 (7.35 to 7.45), PaCO2 35 mm Hg (35 to 45 mm Hg), HCO3 18 mEq/L (22 to 26 mEq/L): This set of values indicates acidosis, not alkalosis. The pH is low, indicating acidosis, and the bicarbonate (HCO3) is also low, which suggests metabolic acidosis. The PaCO2 is normal, which further supports a metabolic origin of the acidosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Impetigo contagiosa: Impetigo contagiosa is a bacterial skin infection caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. While it is contagious, it is not typically required to be reported to the state health department, as it is not considered a high-priority communicable disease that mandates immediate reporting.
B) Sarcoptes scabiei: Scabies, caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, is a contagious parasitic skin infection. Although scabies can be easily spread, it is generally not a reportable disease to the state health department unless there is an outbreak in a specific setting, such as a healthcare facility or school.
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae: Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the bacterium that causes gonorrhea, is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that is required by law to be reported to the state health department. Gonorrhea is a notifiable disease because of its potential for rapid transmission, complications, and its increasing resistance to antibiotics. Early reporting helps control the spread and provides opportunities for public health interventions.
D) Human papillomavirus (HPV): Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a viral infection that is not required to be reported to the state health department. While HPV is the most common STI and can lead to cancers such as cervical cancer, it is not mandated for reporting as an individual infection. However, certain types of HPV-related cancers may be tracked through cancer registries.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Staff members used a class A fire extinguisher during an electrical fire.
This response indicates that the safety plan is effective because it shows that the staff used the correct type of fire extinguisher for the fire they encountered. Class A fire extinguishers are designed for ordinary combustibles (e.g., wood, paper, cloth), but using a fire extinguisher that is correctly suited to the fire type demonstrates that the staff are trained and prepared to respond appropriately in an emergency. For electrical fires, however, a Class C fire extinguisher should be used. This suggests a review of fire safety plan training might be necessary to align fire extinguisher types with fire classes.
B) Staff members review the locations of fire extinguishers every 2 to 3 years.
Reviewing the locations of fire extinguishers every 2 to 3 years is not an adequate frequency. Fire safety protocols should be reviewed more frequently to ensure that staff are consistently aware of fire extinguisher locations. Routine and more frequent checks (e.g., annually) are required to ensure proper preparedness in an emergency.
C) An evacuation was ordered during a fire when fire extinguishers were not effective.
While evacuations are necessary in certain situations, an evacuation being ordered because fire extinguishers were ineffective could indicate that the safety plan was not properly executed or that there was an issue with fire extinguisher maintenance or staff training. The effectiveness of fire safety plans should reduce the need for evacuations due to inadequate response efforts.
D) Fire alarms in the facility have the same sound as other alarms.
Fire alarms should have a distinct sound that differentiates them from other types of alarms (e.g., medical or security alarms). If fire alarms have the same sound as other alarms, it could create confusion in an emergency, undermining the effectiveness of the safety plan. The alarm system should be unique and easily identifiable.
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